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Senyorico
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Please cite sources if there’s any, I’d love to read pertinent arguments!
Could all be conceived in a state of sanctifying grace? Theoretically it could be so, but there is no revelation of that in scripture and tradition, so the Church defined only that Jesus Christ and the Blessed Virgin Mary were conceived in a state of grace. It is not known exactly when Adam and Eve were constituted in the state of grace rather that it was prior to their sin.Please cite sources if there’s any, I’d love to read pertinent arguments!
Owing to the infallible decisions laid down by the Church, every orthodox theory on predestination and reprobation must keep within the limits marked out by the following theses:
a) At least in the order of execution in time (in ordine executionis) the meritorious works of the predestined are the partial cause of their eternal happiness;
b) hell cannot even in the order of intention (in ordine intentionis) have been positively decreed to the damned, even though it is inflicted on them in time as the just punishment of their misdeeds;
c) there is absolutely no predestination to sin as a means to eternal damnation.
Even the Orthodox who reject the Immaculate Conception (it’s important to emphasize that their theology on original sin (or ancestral sin, as they call it) is a little different) still believe that Mary went her whole life without sin.As the Mother of God, it is fitting that her womb be pure for the Son of God to reside in - ie be Holy and pure. So Mary was conceived without the stain of original sin for this purpose, as no less would be fitting for the Second Person of the Holy Trinity. Search for Catholic explanations on the Immaculate Conception.
That she did!believe that Mary went her whole life without sin.
If he wanted to I’m sure he could. But he didn’t. So, I think, there must be something important about the journey he set us on.Did God predestined Mary to be sinless? If so, why can a loving God create a man sinless but not all?
Please cite sources if there’s any, I’d love to read pertinent arguments!
No… it is more than that! Even though, at baptism, the “stain of original sin” is removed, we are still prone to concupiscence, and have a “darkened intellect and weakened will.” These effects remain in us, even after baptism. Mary had none of these. So, in her case, she really was a “second Eve”!So is it correct to say God created May pre-baptized (ie baptized at conception)… or what it more than that?
Wow. I never thought of it like that!! I wonder why God did that? Seems like he was stacking the deck. Would a “regular person” with the effects of the Fall already not have been able to accept the calling??No… it is more than that! Even though, at baptism, the “stain of original sin” is removed, we are still prone to concupiscence, and have a “darkened intellect and weakened will.” These effects remain in us, even after baptism. Mary had none of these. So, in her case, she really was a “second Eve”!
The Church would say that it was “fitting” (or “appropriate”) to do, in preparation for the Incarnation of Jesus. Not “stacking the deck” so much as “prepping the table.”I wonder why God did that? Seems like he was stacking the deck.
I guess the question to ask isn’t “able to accept the calling?”, but rather “able to fulfill the calling, throughout her whole life?”, right…?Would a “regular person” with the effects of the Fall already not have been able to accept the calling??
Flip the question. Could someone bear Jesus and be a “regular person”? Mary’s immaculate conception wasn’t just a necessary precursor to the birth of Christ, it was possible through the merits of her son. She was free from sin so she could bear Jesus, and her son is the source of her freedom from sin. B causes A, therefore B can happen.Gorgias:
Wow. I never thought of it like that!! I wonder why God did that? Seems like he was stacking the deck. Would a “regular person” with the effects of the Fall already not have been able to accept the calling??No… it is more than that! Even though, at baptism, the “stain of original sin” is removed, we are still prone to concupiscence, and have a “darkened intellect and weakened will.” These effects remain in us, even after baptism. Mary had none of these. So, in her case, she really was a “second Eve”!
Either way, it makes Mary feel less relatable to me. I like to think of her experiencing many of the emotions I’d experience if I were in her shoes - morning sickness, Braxton Hicks contractions, fear, loneliness, exhaustion. But maybe Mary was not actually emotionally affected by these things happening because she “walked with God” like Adam And Eve did & was so aware of his presence it was almost like being in heaven already…???I guess the question to ask isn’t “able to accept the calling?”, but rather “able to fulfill the calling, throughout her whole life?”, right…?
Hmm…Either way, it makes Mary feel less relatable to me. I like to think of her experiencing many of the emotions I’d experience if I were in her shoes - morning sickness, Braxton Hicks contractions, fear, loneliness, exhaustion.