Did God punish Jesus?

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I watched a preacher on television who said that “the fingers of the Father were wrapped around the wrists of the soldiers who flogged Jesus” and “It was the Father were spat upon and tortured Jesus”. He gave Isaiah 53, in particular the verse that says “Yet it was the will of the Lord to bruise him”, as his proof of this teaching. Is the right? If not, why not? What does it mean when the Scriptures say Christ died/suffered/was punished for our sins? Is there any way to interpret Isaiah 53 without following this preacher’s opinion?
 
Its taking it to a wrong conclusion to believe God participated in the sin of afflicting Jesus. God’s will was that Jesus took upon Himself the sins of man. In this way, God’s Spirit had forsaken to defend Him and even compelled Him to receive the torments of sin.
 
Tolkien13 said:
I watched a preacher on television who said that “the fingers of the Father were wrapped around the wrists of the soldiers who flogged Jesus” and “It was the Father were spat upon and tortured Jesus”. He gave Isaiah 53, in particular the verse that says “Yet it was the will of the Lord to bruise him”, as his proof of this teaching. Is the right? If not, why not? What does it mean when the Scriptures say Christ died/suffered/was punished for our sins? Is there any way to interpret Isaiah 53 without following this preacher’s opinion?
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HI,

I am not sure what he means by Christ being punished for our sins?

The punishment for sin, without forgiveness, is eternal death in hell.
Would God, in His justice, demand double payment for sin, I don’t think so.
Christ died for all sin, He was not punished for our sins. He appeased the Father so our sins can be forgiven. If our sins are not forgiven, we will be punished.
If Christ was punished for our sins, would he be in Heaven? Then all would then be in Heaven.

🤷
 
Jesus was NOT punished by the Father.

Listen at Mass to Eucharistic Prayer II:
Code: 
     At the time he was betrayed
     and **entered willingly into his Passion**,
The sacrifice of the Lord was an act of willing obedience to the Father, out of love for the world, and NOT the result of punishment imposed on the Son by the Father!

Peace and All Good!
 
Tolkien13 said:
I watched a preacher on television who said that “the fingers of the Father were wrapped around the wrists of the soldiers who flogged Jesus” and “It was the Father were spat upon and tortured Jesus”. He gave Isaiah 53, in particular the verse that says “Yet it was the will of the Lord to bruise him”, as his proof of this teaching. Is the right? If not, why not? What does it mean when the Scriptures say Christ died/suffered/was punished for our sins? Is there any way to interpret Isaiah 53 without following this preacher’s opinion?
Click to expand...
Isaiah 53:10 And the Lord was pleased to bruise him in infirmity: if he shall lay down his life for sin, he shall see a long-lived seed, and the will of the Lord shall be prosperous in his hand.

From Haydocks Catholic commentary…

Ver. 10. Bruise. Septuagint, “to cleanse him from the wound.” (Haydock) — God was pleased that he should satisfy for our crimes. — Hand. Christ has died for all, and established a Church which shall not perish.
 
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