Did Jesus call Mary women like how we call her Lady?

[FormerXCatholic]

When defending Our Lady I always compare her to title to Jesus’ title of Our Lord. Is it appropriate to argue that even Jesus himself referred to his Mother in royal terms when he calls her “women” through the Bible?

 

[Ad_Orientem]

I like St. Augustine’s explanation (via St. Thomas):

To mark a distinction between His Godhead and manhood, that according to His manhood He was inferior and subject, but according to His Godhead supreme, He said, Woman, what have I to do with you?

 

[FormerXCatholic]

I like this explanation too! I have never heard that before. Yet I still wonder if there is parallel meaning here. Thanks for the feedback

 

[lmelahn]

When defending Our Lady I always compare her to title to Jesus’ title of Our Lord. Is it appropriate to argue that even Jesus himself referred to his Mother in royal terms when he calls her “women” through the Bible?

Yes, I think that is basically correct. Back then “woman” meant essentially the same thing as “madam” today, a very respectful title.

There is, however, a more fundamental reference to “the woman” par excellence that is Eve. If we examine the Gospel of John, we see a number of striking parallels to the Book of Genesis.

(The most obvious is the prologue, which makes a reference to the opening of Genesis: “In the beginning…”)

Just as Eve became the mother of all the living (Gen. 3:20), so Mary became the mother of the Beloved Disciple in John 19:26-27 (and so, I think there is a very strong case that she therefore became the mother of all people at this moment).

 

[Joe_Kelley]

My wife had a similar problem when she first met with Hispanics in the parish where she worked. Her Spanish was limited; what she thought was “Old Woman” is actually an honorific. Fortunately she worked it out without embarrassing herself or anyone else.