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catalina343
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It may be helpful to read my other question to gain some background. But the Bible say “All have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God.” So how can we say Mary did not sin. Someone brought up the point that Jesus didn’t sin so this doesn’t actually mean “all.” However, Jesus is God, and clearly God cannot fall short of the glory of God. that just doesn’t make sense. So why would the Bible say “all” if it didn’t actualy mean “all”?