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After reading this recent article by the Vaticanista Sandro Magister, I am even more confused about Dignitatis Humanæ, the Vatican II document on religious freedom.
In his Principles of Catholic Theology, then-Card. Ratzinger called Gaudium et Spes, “(in conjunction with the texts on religious liberty [e.g., *Dignitatis Humanæ] and world religions),” “a revision of the Syllabus of Pius IX, a kind of countersyllabus.” He also said in that same book that it “represents on the part of the Church, an attempt at official reconciliation with the new era inaugurated in 1789.” Viz., a concession to Masonry, vehemently condemned by many popes prior to Vatican II, e.g., by Pope Leo XIII in Humanum Genus.
What did then-Card. Ratzinger really mean by this? Does it contradict what he said in his December 2005 “hermeneutic of continuity” speech? Why does Pope Benedict agree with the first phase of the French Revolution, as Sandro Magister’s article says? How is Pope Benedict XVI not supporting dogmatic evolution? How is he not supporting the “New Theology?” I am still confused.
Michael Davies’ article on religious liberty, for free online, did not help clear up the confusion either.
Why does Dignitatis Humanae say: “This Vatican Council declares that the human person has a right to religious freedom.” (D.H. §2)? D.H. directly agrees with, e.g., what Pope Gregory XVI condemned as an “insanity” in Mirari Vos §14 and which Pope Pius IX reiterated and condemned in Quanta Cura, viz., that
The real question is: “Why does the Church need a French Revolution?,” as Card. Suenens called Vatican II? The French Revolution was Masonic. Why should She conform to the world?[bibledrb]Deuteronomy 18:9[/bibledrb][bibledrb]John 15:18[/bibledrb][bibledrb]2 Corinthians 6:14-18[/bibledrb]Why should She avoid a “ghetto mentality,” as some consider those to have who attend masses in the Extraordinary Form of the Roman Rite?
Ironically, Dignitatis Humanæ, with its glaring similarity to the French Revolution’s Declaration of the Rights of Man, has resulted in less human dignity due to its forcing the Church to retreat out of the political realm, which desperately needs Her moral authority. Had Vatican II not conceded to the Masons with this document, Roe v. Wade might not have occurred in the United States.
Additionally, why do these seemingly contradict each other?
In his Principles of Catholic Theology, then-Card. Ratzinger called Gaudium et Spes, “(in conjunction with the texts on religious liberty [e.g., *Dignitatis Humanæ] and world religions),” “a revision of the Syllabus of Pius IX, a kind of countersyllabus.” He also said in that same book that it “represents on the part of the Church, an attempt at official reconciliation with the new era inaugurated in 1789.” Viz., a concession to Masonry, vehemently condemned by many popes prior to Vatican II, e.g., by Pope Leo XIII in Humanum Genus.
What did then-Card. Ratzinger really mean by this? Does it contradict what he said in his December 2005 “hermeneutic of continuity” speech? Why does Pope Benedict agree with the first phase of the French Revolution, as Sandro Magister’s article says? How is Pope Benedict XVI not supporting dogmatic evolution? How is he not supporting the “New Theology?” I am still confused.
Michael Davies’ article on religious liberty, for free online, did not help clear up the confusion either.
Why does Dignitatis Humanae say: “This Vatican Council declares that the human person has a right to religious freedom.” (D.H. §2)? D.H. directly agrees with, e.g., what Pope Gregory XVI condemned as an “insanity” in Mirari Vos §14 and which Pope Pius IX reiterated and condemned in Quanta Cura, viz., that
Also, Pope St. Pius X condemned a separation of Church and State in Vehemeter Nos §3: “That the State must be separated from the Church is a thesis absolutely false, a most pernicious error.”liberty of conscience and worship is each man’s personal right, which ought to be legally proclaimed and asserted in every rightly constituted society; and that a right resides in the citizens to an absolute liberty, which should be restrained by no authority whether ecclesiastical or civil, whereby they may be able openly and publicly to manifest and declare any of their ideas whatever, either by word of mouth, by the press, or in any other way.
The real question is: “Why does the Church need a French Revolution?,” as Card. Suenens called Vatican II? The French Revolution was Masonic. Why should She conform to the world?[bibledrb]Deuteronomy 18:9[/bibledrb][bibledrb]John 15:18[/bibledrb][bibledrb]2 Corinthians 6:14-18[/bibledrb]Why should She avoid a “ghetto mentality,” as some consider those to have who attend masses in the Extraordinary Form of the Roman Rite?
Ironically, Dignitatis Humanæ, with its glaring similarity to the French Revolution’s Declaration of the Rights of Man, has resulted in less human dignity due to its forcing the Church to retreat out of the political realm, which desperately needs Her moral authority. Had Vatican II not conceded to the Masons with this document, Roe v. Wade might not have occurred in the United States.
Additionally, why do these seemingly contradict each other?
“… all men should be immune from coercion on the part of … every human power so that, within due limits, nobody is forced to act against his convictions nor is anyone to be restrained from acting in accordance with his convictions…” (Dignitatis Humanæ, §2),
Contrary condemned statement: “… the best condition of society is the one in which there is no acknowledgment by the government of the duty of restraining… offenders of the Catholic religion, except insofar as the public peace demands” (Pius IX, Quanta Cura).
“This right of the human person to religious freedom must be given such recognition in the constitutional order of society as will make it a civil right” (Dignitatis Humanæ, §2),
Contrary condemned statement: “Liberty of conscience and of worship … should be proclaimed and asserted by law in every correctly established society …” (Pius IX, Quanta Cura).