Disordered desire or inordinate enjoyment

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prstoessel

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To further my discernment on acts of lust, I have been looking at this definition in a previous thread:
CCC - 2351 Lust is disordered desire for or inordinate enjoyment of sexual pleasure. Sexual pleasure is morally disordered when sought for itself, isolated from its procreative and unitive purposes.
Having normal marital intercourse intentionally during times of infertility - regardless of the reason - would also seem to fit into this category. Doing so is not procreative. In fact, it’s the opposite. I have read “… anything non-procreative is, by definition, intrinsically evil.” But I hardly think that is what was intended in that particular definition.

Looking at it closer:
Sexual pleasure is morally disordered when sought for itself,
I would like to know exactly why certain acts (such as OS) would be used as a means of defining this teaching. It would seem that the intent is what is of significance here.

However, in reading the rest of the definition, parameters are set to provide the criteria:
… isolated from its procreative and unitive purposes.
It does not say “and/or” in this definition. I think that is significant. Both must be present in order to fulfill the definition of being lust. So if we take away the “procreative purposes” aspect of a sexual relationship because the couple no longer desires to achieve pregnancy (for a good moral reason), we are left with dealing with whether a sexual act is unified, as well as not sought for itself in a disordered manner.

“Not sought for itself” would seem to address the intent of initiation of sexual activity. Provided that the intent is of pure mind and heart and not rooted in selfishness, I would say that this could extend to sexual acts outside of normal intercourse, for even normal intercourse is subject to an improper or disordered intent. Even if the act itself is procreative, it may not necessarily be unified in a spiritual sense.

Is it “disordered” to desire and engage in sexual acts outside of normal intercourse? If so, then are there acts within the context of normal intercourse that are also considered disordered? Various positions in sexual intercourse, for example, may not properly keep the unitive aspects of the act in the full dignity that it requires. The things that we say to each other during the act may also contribute to whether or not the act is disordered.

I find myself now in a worse position than when I started. A simple case of “paralysis by analysis”. It has taken over my thought processes so much, that I have a hard time thinking about anything else in my free time. Now THAT, is disordered…

I, therefore, am thinking that this is indeed a matter left to the conscience of the couple, as far as culpability of sin is concerned. Whether the acts outside of normal intercourse are indeed “disordered” and “intrinsically evil” is not settled with me.

The truth, however, is the truth. There is no changing that. Our understanding of truth, however, is what evolves over time. This can only happen if one is open to admitting that he/she is wrong and continues to discern and pray for understanding. I will certainly keep doing that.
 
To further my discernment on acts of lust, I have been looking at this definition in a previous thread:

Having normal marital intercourse intentionally during times of infertility - regardless of the reason - would also seem to fit into this category. Doing so is not procreative. In fact, it’s the opposite. I have read “… anything non-procreative is, by definition, intrinsically evil.” But I hardly think that is what was intended in that particular definition.
First off the source you are quoting i think who goes all into the ‘nonprocreative’ is not a good source in these matters…

Ok lets return to the Catechism…

The marital relations during times of infertility or even sterility is still open to life for the persons engaging in the marital relations are not frustrating these with contraceptive practices… They are still open to life (they are not frustrating this possibility)…
 
I, therefore, am thinking that this is indeed a matter left to the conscience of the couple, as far as culpability of sin is concerned. Whether the acts outside of normal intercourse are indeed “disordered” and “intrinsically evil” is not settled with me.

The truth, however, is the truth. There is no changing that. Our understanding of truth, however, is what evolves over time. This can only happen if one is open to admitting that he/she is wrong and continues to discern and pray for understanding. I will certainly keep doing that.
The fact is that no one --married or not may seek or consent to sexual climax outside of the context of the marital act . This is simply the teaching of the Church.

(the unmarried may not consent or seek any sexual pleasure/arousal otherwise at all)

We must (as you are seeking to do) inform our conscience as to the teachings of the Church…the book you mentioned prior is a good source as of course is the Catechism.
So do not stress or scruple…but we need simply to follow the teachings of the Church.

Regarding oral stimulation which has been discussed in this context before on this site:

ewtn.com/vexperts/showresult.asp?RecNum=511803&Forums=0&Experts=0&Days=2009&Author=&Keyword=oral+sex&pgnu=1&groupnum=0&record_bookmark=10&ORDER_BY_TXT=ORDER+BY+ReplyDate+DESC&start_at=

Regarding other aspects of climax (including the above):

ewtn.com/vexperts/showresult.asp?RecNum=503081&Forums=0&Experts=0&Days=2009&Author=&Keyword=climax&pgnu=1&groupnum=0&record_bookmark=25&ORDER_BY_TXT=ORDER+BY+ReplyDate+DESC&start_at=

and pg 91 in your book

Regarding other acts:

ewtn.com/vexperts/showresult.asp?RecNum=505370&Forums=0&Experts=0&Days=2009&Author=&Keyword=climax&pgnu=1&groupnum=0&record_bookmark=19&ORDER_BY_TXT=ORDER+BY+ReplyDate+DESC&start_at=

Regarding only engaging when wife is infertile …one needs a serious reason for this of course…
 
CCC - 2351 Lust is disordered desire for or inordinate enjoyment of sexual pleasure. Sexual pleasure is morally disordered when sought for itself, isolated from its procreative and unitive purposes.

For the married…(who have a right to sexual pleasure and climax in ordered way) the very fact that *climax *is sought outside the marital act would certainly be grave matter for mortal sin…and would be lust.
 
First off the source you are quoting i think who goes all into the ‘nonprocreative’ is not a good source in these matters…

Ok lets return to the Catechism…

The marital relations during times of infertility or even sterility is still open to life for the persons engaging in the marital relations are not frustrating these with contraceptive practices… They are still open to life (they are not frustrating this possibility).
Yes, God has been known to have quite a sense of humor where couples thought to be sterile (barren) have been concerned. Just ask Sarah…or Elizabeth.

DaveBj
 
I am sorry if I am wrong on this, but is this topic saying that if a married couple is having sex for “pleasure” instead of creating a human life it is wrong? Also the Catholic church says oral sex is wrong even if the couple is married? I might have read what you have said wrong, but that is how I interperated it.
 
I am sorry if I am wrong on this, but is this topic saying that if a married couple is having sex for “pleasure” instead of creating a human life it is wrong? Also the Catholic church says oral sex is wrong even if the couple is married? I might have read what you have said wrong, but that is how I interperated it.
Pleasure is of course part of the reality of marital relations…but such must of course be moderated and it is not just for pleasure…(for example one can not use ones spouse for pleasure…and it is a living out of the self gift…of marriage…pleasure is part of this of course)…it is union of the husband and wife…which must then be open to life…

forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=6657542&postcount=3
 
Pleasure is of course part of the reality of marital relations…but such must of course be moderated and it is not just for pleasure…(for example one can not use ones spouse for pleasure…and it is a living out of the self gift…of marriage…pleasure is part of this of course)…it is union of the husband and wife…which must then be open to life…
How is it possible for one to use it’s spouse for pleasure if that spouse does not agree and take part in it? I don’t exactly understand what you are saying. I still am wondering if oral sex is wrong inside of marriage…
 
How is it possible for one to use it’s spouse for pleasure if that spouse does not agree and take part in it? I don’t exactly understand what you are saying. I still am wondering if oral sex is wrong inside of marriage…
Do not follow the first part…(if one uses ones spouse just for pleasure…that would be sinful of course)…but here is the answer to the other…

ewtn.com/vexperts/showresult.asp?RecNum=511803&Forums=0&Experts=0&Days=2009&Author=&Keyword=oral+sex&pgnu=1&groupnum=0&record_bookmark=10&ORDER_BY_TXT=ORDER+BY+ReplyDate+DESC&start_at=
 
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