In the time of the OT, after the Kingdom divided, did the people of that time refer to the North as the Northern Kingdom or the Kingdom of Israel? Is there a theological reason we refer to the North as Israel?
In the time of the OT, after the Kingdom divided, did the people of that time refer to the North as the Northern Kingdom or the Kingdom of Israel? Is there a theological reason we refer to the North as Israel?
Hi Deacon- if I remember correct Northern Kingdom was called Israel .Remember the woman at the well? she was from samaria- which is north. She said her Father Jacob drank from the well-Jacob’s other name was Israel! that’s all the theology I know about that.!!
Thanks Julia for your (name removed by moderator)ut. Yes, I did know Jacob’s name was changed to Israel in the book of Genesis. I guess I wasn’t epressing myself clearly. My question was did the people of the North call themselves the Kingdom of Israel, and if they did, why was the South not upset by this. Or did the Southern Kindom, named after the tribe of Judah, just call the North the Northern Kingdom? Part of me thinks that Judah would be upset, since they are from the line of David.
Thanks Julia for your (name removed by moderator)ut. Yes, I did know Jacob’s name was changed to Israel in the book of Genesis. I guess I wasn’t epressing myself clearly. My question was did the people of the North call themselves the Kingdom of Israel, and if they did, why was the South not upset by this. Or did the Southern Kindom, named after the tribe of Judah, just call the North the Northern Kingdom? Part of me thinks that Judah would be upset, since they are from the line of David.
I don’t think so because the entirety of Israel started as individual ‘states’ that belong to individual tribes.Most tribes being in the north. we Know Judah and Benjamin were south.I think pride of tribe and the dominance of Judahites would preclude any jealousy on their part.After Saul(benjaminite) the royalty was Judahite-so I don’t think it would have been problematic.
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