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Uzor_Oliver
Guest
Do you think that Catholics who are divorced should be allowed to remarry in the Church and to share communion? What scandal would be given to ordinary people to the practice?
I assume you are talking about some of the proposals being put forward in Europe.Do you think that Catholics who are divorced should be allowed to remarry in the Church and to share communion? What scandal would be given to ordinary people to the practice?
No, because that woud be contrary to what marriage is. The scandal would be that people would think that marriage is not what it is.Do you think that Catholics who are divorced should be allowed to remarry in the Church and to share communion? What scandal would be given to ordinary people to the practice?
No - absolutely not.Do you think that Catholics who are divorced should be allowed to remarry in the Church and to share communion? What scandal would be given to ordinary people to the practice?
Sure! Right after the annulment is granted.Do you think that Catholics who are divorced should be allowed to remarry in the Church and to share communion? What scandal would be given to ordinary people to the practice?
Really? Please elaborate with specific Scripture in which JESUS says divorced persons will be denied Sacraments.Christ has spoken on this matter and none of us can overrule Him.
Sure! Right after the annulment is granted.![]()
Jesus says we must not separate what God has joined, and that anyone who divorces his wife commits adultery by marrying another woman. (He says that in the case of porneia, a person may divorce his wife - this is commonly translated as “adultery” but “adultery” is NOT the actual meaning.) A civil divorce ends a legal contract of marriage. It does not, and cannot, end the covenant of marriage. If a person was to remarry while still being in a valid marriage covenant with another person, the new marriage would be adulterous - and adultery is a mortal sin. A person guilty of mortal sin cannot receive Holy Communion - we are told by St. Paul not to be guilty of the Body and Blood of the Lord.Really? Please elaborate with specific Scripture in which JESUS says divorced persons will be denied Sacraments.
Every marriage is considered valid until proven otherwise (unless there are problems that you can prove “on paper”, for example, getting married outside the Church without dispensation, having a prior bond of marriage, being too young or too closely related, etc.). Consequently, marriage enjoys the favour of the law (e.g. the marriage is presumed valid until proven otherwise). The purpose of a marriage tribunal is to determine whether, in fact, a valid marriage covenant existed in the first place. Marriage is intended to last for life. To give a declaration of nullity for a frivolous reason is to demean the value the Church places on marriage, and the understanding of marriage that Christ intended.Yes. I think making people going through a drawn out annulment process is a bunch of baloney.
The New American Bible has this footnote from Matthew 5:21 [31-32] See ⇒ Deut 24:1-5. The Old Testament commandment that a bill of divorce be given to the woman assumes the legitimacy of divorce itself. It is this that Jesus denies. (Unless the marriage is unlawful): this “exceptive clause,” as it is often called, occurs also in ⇒ Matthew 19:9, where the Greek is slightly different. There are other sayings of Jesus about divorce that prohibit it absolutely (see ⇒ Mark 10:11-12; ⇒ Luke 16:18; cf ⇒ 1 Cor 7:10, ⇒ 11b), and most scholars agree that they represent the stand of Jesus. Matthew’s “exceptive clauses” are understood by some as a modification of the absolute prohibition. It seems, however, that the unlawfulness that Matthew gives as a reason why a marriage must be broken refers to a situation peculiar to his community: the violation of Mosaic law forbidding marriage between persons of certain blood and/or legal relationship (⇒ Lev 18:6-18). Marriages of that sort were regarded as incest (porneia), but some rabbis allowed Gentile converts to Judaism who had contracted such marriages to remain in them. Matthew’s “exceptive clause” is against such permissiveness for Gentile converts to Christianity; cf the similar prohibition of porneia in ⇒ Acts 15:20, ⇒ 29. In this interpretation, the clause constitutes no exception to the absolute prohibition of divorce when the marriage is lawful.porneia means “sexual immoral acts” while the Church claims it means “invalid,” there is a discrepancy there. The definition of porneia is not “invalid.” Notice the “porn” in the term, it refers to matters of a sexual nature.
Christ said except for porneia, you may not divorce. The Church chooses to interpret this as an invalid marriage from the start, but the word does not mean that.
The Church claims that since he didn’t use the word moicheia, which specifically means “adultery” he must not have meant adultery in that passage.
However, porneia describes a whole host of activities: sexual immorality, fornication, marital unfaithfulness, prostitution, adultery, a generic term for sexual sin of any kind.
This more strongly suggests that Christ was referring to a much larger list of sexual activities that would be grounds for divorce, for example if your spouse went to the town square and publicly masturbated in front of everyone, that would fall under the same offense while technically not being adultery. Or if your spouse claimed to be a virgin but you found out otherwise after marriage, fornication.
It is absolutely clear to me the Church’s interpretation is in error here.