Do born again Christians Protestants go to heaven?

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Exactly, for the first - almost 400 years - (397AD) There was no NT to rely on. Oral teaching and tradition passed on from the disciples was very important in the the early church. Even when the Bible was compiled into one book in 397 (via Council of Carthage), the first printing press did not exist until 1014. So a Bible wasn’t easy to come by as it is today. They early church relied heavily on the oral teachings and traditions passed down from the first church fathers.
 
If the teaching that abosultion is required for the forgiveness of sins is based on the Bible and protestants say they follow the Bible, then there is no way for them to obtain eternal life unless they live a life absent of mortal sin.
This is correct. No one who commits mortal sin and does not have it released from him in the Confessional can go to Heaven. Mortal sin is grave matter, done intentionally.
Since mortal sin is defined as willfully breaking a ten commandment in your heart/mind or with your physical body with full consent, there is not one protestant that will be able to avoid mortal sin for a lifetime.
In practice, this is probably true. In theory, it is possible, of course. And in the case of a person baptized in a Protestant Church who does not have the full use of his reason, he would certainly go to Heaven, since he is not capable of committing a mortal sin.
All protestants will commit idoloatry, covet, dishonor their mother/father, or bear false witness over the course of their life. Since all protestants willfully break a ten commandement over the course of their life and all protestants, even though they have access to the Bible, willfully reject the need for absoltuion by a Catholic priest for their mortal sins can we not conclude that all protestants will go to hell in a state of mortal sin?
Quite possibly.
If we do not make this conclusion have we not undermined the Catholic doctrine that teaches the need for absolution for our mortal sins?
Only if we assume that God is required to allow Protestants into Heaven. He is not.
How can protestants claim to be ignorant of the need for absoultion by a priest if they have access to the verses (John 20:21-23 and 1 John 5:16-17) about the need for absolution in the Bible?
That is the million dollar question.
Is receiving absolution by a Catholic priest for your mortal sins part of keeping God’s commandments?
It is a precept of the Church. The Church was given to Peter. Jesus said to Peter, “What thou bind on earth is bound in Heaven. What thou loose on earth is loosed in Heaven.”

This means that whatever laws the Catholic Church makes are God’s laws, and we are bound to obey them, not only by the Church, but also by God, and we will be judged by God for whether we kept them or broke them.
 
Ther percentage of protestants that do not know that protestantism broke from the Catholic church is very small so for all intensive purposes you are saying that all protestants are going to hell once they die since they can not claim to be ignorant. Protestants also can not claim to be ignorant of the need for absoultion for their mortal sins by a Catholic priest since they have access to read John 20:21-23 and 1 John 5:16-17. Correct?
Just to be clear, I don’t judge or condemn anyone. I’m merely quoting from scripture and the CCC.

Scripturally speaking,

Jesus absolutely opposes division of any kind in His Church or from His Church. John 17:20-23 He wants perfect unity.

When the Holy Spirit inspired Paul to condemn division in and from the Church, (and there is only one Church by definition) in the following readings Romans 16:17-20** , **Galatians 5:19-21 who did that condemnation originate from? Yes it’s the HS John 14:25-26 , but where does the HS get it from? The HS takes from Jesus and gives it to Paul John 16:12-15. Therefore, Jesus is the one who condemns any division / sedition / dissension etc from His Church or within His Church that He builds on Peter and the apostles.

Given Romans 16:17-20** , **Galatians 5:19-21 and the consequences one sees for division, we see then, where 846 comes from.

However, the Church in a pastoral way, so that 846 isn’t taken in a wooden literal way, provides for the possibility of one’s ignorance and lack of personal fault in being divided from the Catholic Church…** Providing **one’s ignorance is innocent and no fault of their own. Vincible ignorance otoh is when one takes little effort to learn what one is bound to know and has ample access to such information, but doesn’t try to access it or learn it. That person can no longer plead innocent by reason of ignorance. 1791

It seems to me, as 846 illudes to, part of judgement for non-Catholics then, will be their culpability for why they didn’t accept the true faith. As the Church says (paraphrased) one will be held to a standard consummate with the opportunities that are presented to them in this life, and the access one had to the Church’s teachings. Where this information is / was easy to access, It is not a light matter for the n-C who remains n-C… IMO
P:
But you are right - the Bible is absolutely clear on these points. How someone who claims to be a Bible scholar could miss them so completely is beyond comprehension. 🤷
I’m merely saying, it seems to me highly dangerous for a Protestant as an example, to understand in their own mind, that as long as one is not 100% convinced of the truth of the Catholic faith, they think all is well for them. Knowing the stakes, and the teaching throughout scripture and history about division from the Church, all I’m saying, one appears in that case to be playing roulette with their soul.
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Where does the Bible directly teach that the ONLY way your mortal sins can be forgiven is by absolution of a priest? The Bible offers absolution as ONE method to obtain the forgiveness of your mortal sins, but I am struggling with finding a verse that says it is the ONLY way. I know the catechism says it is the only way, but where does it say that in the Bible? If there is a verse I can show it to my protestant friends and help them understand.
how about this. We know the following is true John 20:21-23. Why does Jesus give that power to His apostles, if all a sinner has to do is say a prayer to Jesus?
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How can protestants be ignorant when they have access to read the Bible? Does not the Bible clearly teach that you need absolution for the mortal sins you commit? How can they claim to be ignorant when so many of them have read John 20:21-23 and 1 John 5:16-17?
good points
 
You are mostly correct in both respects (though it would have been more accurate to say “Confession” rather than “Communion”).

The Catechism does, indeed, support (but does not teach) what you say:

A Catholic who is facing imminent death, and who is not in a State of Grace (because of mortal sin - the ONLY thing that can remove a Catholic from a State of Grace) can make a prayerful act of contrition and be forgiven, assuming he intends to avail himself of the earliest opportunity to attend Sacramental Confession (even if he does not believe any such opportunity will ever present itself).

HOWEVER, the contrition must be “perfect.” That means that he is sorry that offended God, and is not sorry because he fears God’s just punishment. If there is any measure of “selfish” contrition, he is not assured of forgiveness or salvation.

That does not mean he cannot be saved - it only means that he cannot be assured of salvation.
this sounds very comforting . I would say you are most correct because you cannot fool God.
 
This is correct. No one who commits mortal sin and does not have it released from him in the Confessional can go to Heaven. Mortal sin is grave matter, done intentionally.
Thanks for your clear and direct answers. It helped clear things up for me as far as what the Catholic church teaches on this.
 
Sorry

I was referring to the catholic catechism.

I did not mean to sound disrespectful of it…
Neither did I mean to imply that you were disrespectful toward anything. (I am not quite sure how anyone can be disrespectful to a catechism, but that is a different story.) I truly was just curious. (Its perfect symmetry in a way 😉 ).

Personally, I thought that the Catholic catechism quoted in one of the early responses to this thread said essentially what you said. That could be though, because I am a Catholic with the interests of a scholar. I can definitely understand if the majority of people reading it find it to be just a bunch of mumbo jumbo.

It is my belief, though, that in the vast majority of cases the catechism should not be used in apologetics. It is a bit like trying to explain to the general public why the sky is blue using technical quotes from a university physics textbook.
 
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