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Chuck_Finley
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How do you know?No, it is not assumed, it was taught by God to the Apostles.
How do you know?No, it is not assumed, it was taught by God to the Apostles.
Because the Church testifies to it. Same way we know the bible is the written word of God.How do you know?
OK. How does the Church know?Because the Church testifies to it.
Because the Church remembers what she received, with the help of the Holy Spirit.OK. How does the Church know?
And how does the Church know it received this from the Holy Spirit? Are you suggesting that the Church receives extra-Biblical revelation, even after the closing of the canon?Because the Church remembers what she received, with the help of the Holy Spirit.
The difference is that, if you claimed Ben Franklin was the first president, I could show you actual documents from history that show Franklin was not the first president.If I started claiming that Ben Franklin was actually the first US President, what would happen? My claim would of course be refuted. Similarly, if a false “Catholic” doctrine was proclaimed in the past, it would be refuted, and we would have a historical record of that refutation.
Extra-biblical (and pre-New Testament) revelation, yes, until the close of the age of the apostles.And how does the Church know it received this from the Holy Spirit? Are you suggesting that the Church receives extra-Biblical revelation, even after the closing of the canon?
The difference is that, if you claimed Ben Franklin was the first president, I could show you actual documents from history that show Franklin was not the first president.
You missed my point. The apostles didn’t need documents to verify what Christ and the Holy Spirit taught them. If somebody had claimed to the apostles that Mary had sinned, and they had already been taught that she was sinless, they would of course have refuted that and made sure that the correct doctrine was taught. That exact mechanism holds for each generation after the apostles, right down to the present day. Of course all Church teachings have been written down by now, but they were written down after they were first received. Written documents for the Church are an output, not an (name removed by moderator)ut.On the other hand, if I claimed Ben Franklin was the first president and that historical documents really didn’t matter because I was given this knowledge by a group of men who claimed to be infallible, how should I defend my claims in light of your evidence from objective historical sources?
BTW, it would be REALLY helpful if you would indicate your religious or non-religious background in the Religion section of your profile. It helps us to understand your objections and formulate better responses.And how does the Church know it received this from the Holy Spirit? Are you suggesting that the Church receives extra-Biblical revelation, even after the closing of the canon?
Like soAnd how does the Church know it received this from the Holy Spirit? Are you suggesting that the Church receives extra-Biblical revelation, even after the closing of the canon?
OK, here’s an actual document that says Mary is sinless (and it didn’t come from Rome)The difference is that, if you claimed Ben Franklin was the first president, I could show you actual documents from history that show Franklin was not the first president.
By for example showing that each of these men were Supreme Court justices who settled disputes about who the president was (example)On the other hand, if I claimed Ben Franklin was the first president and that historical documents really didn’t matter because I was given this knowledge by a group of men who claimed to be infallible, how should I defend my claims in light of your evidence from objective historical sources?
So then, what makes that extra-Biblical revelation any different than Pat Robertson’s extra-Biblical revelation when he says “God is telling me…”?Extra-biblical (and pre-New Testament) revelation, yes, until the close of the age of the apostles.
And my point is that we’re not the Apostles so we do need an objective and authoritative standard by which to judge what you claim Christ and the Holy Spirit taught them.You missed my point. The apostles didn’t need documents to verify what Christ and the Holy Spirit taught them.
How would you know what the correct doctrine is without the objective and authoritative standard of scripture?If somebody had claimed to the apostles that Mary had sinned, and they had already been taught that she was sinless, they would of course have refuted that and made sure that the correct doctrine was taught.
What Pat Robertson says in such situations is not part of the Deposit of Faith, which the glossary of the C.C.C. defines as “The heritage of faith contained in Sacred Scripture and Tradition, handed on in the Church from the time of the Apostles, from which the Magisterium draws all that it proposes for belief as being divinely revealed.”So then, what makes that extra-Biblical revelation any different than Pat Robertson’s extra-Biblical revelation when he says “God is telling me…”?
It is not “extra-biblical” in the sense that the Bible is completely silent on this issue. The Immaculate Conception is implied in Scripture (as has been demonstrated in this thread, see, for example, Posts #7, 12 & 15) but is mostly drawn from Sacred Tradition.And how are we to test this “extra-Biblical revelation”?
You’re displaying a double-standard because this statement is not found in the Bible. You seem to reject the validity of the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception because it is extra-biblical (in your opinion) and then you make an extra-biblical statement about Scripture being the “objective and authoritative standard.”And my point is that we’re not the Apostles so we do need an objective and authoritative standard by which to judge what you claim Christ and the Holy Spirit taught them.
Through the Magisterium which has a guaranteed guidance of the Holy Spirit not to err when making official definitions concerning faith and morals.How would you know what the correct doctrine is without the objective and authoritative standard of scripture?
I think my brother actually meant to link Ineffabilis Deus (which deals with the Immaculate Conception) rather than “Munificentissimus Deus” (which deals with the Assumption of Mary). I’m guessing David was a little rushed at the time and the fact that the word “assumption” came up in the OP threw him off.DavidFilmer;9327487:
(by Pope Pius-12). This is what dogmatically defines the teaching, and it cites many sources.I think the best summary of the history and theology of this teaching can be found in MUNIFICENTISSIMUS DEUS
Sorry, didn’t see that post. I’ll read that with the hope I can understand it.
Why do you assume that biblical revelation is superior? Why do you assume the bible is even what you believe it is?So then, what makes that extra-Biblical revelation any different than Pat Robertson’s extra-Biblical revelation when he says “God is telling me…”?
And how are we to test this “extra-Biblical revelation”?
And for this reason Christ founded a Church which has been given the power to bind and loose, and is guided by the Holy Spirit for all ages. Surely you can see the logic in this?And my point is that we’re not the Apostles so we do need an objective and authoritative standard by which to judge what you claim Christ and the Holy Spirit taught them.
What makes scripture objective and authoritative? The answer MUST be something outside of scripture.How would you know what the correct doctrine is without the objective and authoritative standard of scripture?
What exactly are you referring to?What does all this have to do with weather or not Catholics believe Mary was sinless? … just sayin![]()