Do Hebrew Catholics observe circumcision and Sabbath in disobedience to the Council of Florence?

[ROBAUTEN]

It is important in reading declarations and documents from the past not the commit the error of anachronistic interpretation.
The intent and reason for the documents at the time is a very important component in getting proper and correct understanding. The prohabition may have been to combat some heresy common at the time. If there is no longer any danger of this, it may no longer apply at present time unless the Magisterium indicates so. One would have to talk to the pastoral ordinary in the jurisdictions of those people to see what the determination is.

This limited application makes perfect sense to me in respect to Vatican documents and Papal bulls and encyclicals. But does this also apply to the cannons of an Ecumenical Council? Where is there a good discussion about this?

If you are right, It would be much more important in relation to the anathema’s of the Council of Trent…so if they are no longer in force (for 2nd - 10th generation Protestants for example) because of a new or changed situation in the 21st century, I would really like to know.