P
Polak
Guest
A discussion I am taking part in in another thread has brought about this question.
Does a current or recent piece of doctrine from the Catholic church trump a previous one, if it states something that is very different from the previous one?
Let’s say the Catholic church releases something now that contrasts greatly with something they said 500 years ago. The two simply don’t go together. Does this mean the teaching from 500 years ago is voided? It could work the same way with something a Pope said now being the polar opposite of something a Pope said 500 years ago. Both are unfailable, so how would this work?
If for instance a Pope from the past said something wrong, it means people in those times would have followed this teaching, and been wrong to follow them. That brings up another question. If a Pope said something that was wrong and people followed this for the rest of their lives, are they exonerated because they were simply following the teachings of the Catholic church?
Does a current or recent piece of doctrine from the Catholic church trump a previous one, if it states something that is very different from the previous one?
Let’s say the Catholic church releases something now that contrasts greatly with something they said 500 years ago. The two simply don’t go together. Does this mean the teaching from 500 years ago is voided? It could work the same way with something a Pope said now being the polar opposite of something a Pope said 500 years ago. Both are unfailable, so how would this work?
If for instance a Pope from the past said something wrong, it means people in those times would have followed this teaching, and been wrong to follow them. That brings up another question. If a Pope said something that was wrong and people followed this for the rest of their lives, are they exonerated because they were simply following the teachings of the Catholic church?
Last edited: