Does Gal 3:22 Contradict the Immaculate Conception?

[Wolves]

Galatians 3:22 (New American Standard Bible)

• 22But the Scripture has shut up everyone under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe.*

I was discussing the Immaculate Conception with somebody and they brought up this Bible verse as proof that the Immaculate Conception is wrong. I did some research and couldn’t find anything about it, so how should I respond to this?

 

[katy]

I was discussing the Immaculate Conception with somebody and they brought up this Bible verse as proof that the Immaculate Conception is wrong. I did some research and couldn’t find anything about it, so how should I respond to this?

Mary was saved by Christ just as we all are. She was given a special grace. The usual comparison is that one can be saved from a pit either by being prevented from falling in (Mary) or pulled out after (us). Hope that helps.

 

[Wolves]

Mary was saved by Christ just as we all are. She was given a special grace. The usual comparison is that one can be saved from a pit either by being prevented from falling in (Mary) or pulled out after (us). Hope that helps.

I’m referring more to the “has shut up everyone under sin” part.

 

[tobinatorstark]

I was discussing the Immaculate Conception with somebody and they brought up this Bible verse as proof that the Immaculate Conception is wrong. I did some research and couldn’t find anything about it, so how should I respond to this?

Why are you using a non approved Bible to determine weather a verse contradicts Catholic teaching

Here is the verse from a Catholic Bible (Douay-Rheims)

22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise, by the faith of Jesus Christ, might be given to them that believe.

Here is its meaning from the Haydock Bible Commentary, also a Douay-Rheims

Ver. 22. Hath concluded all under sin; i.e. hath declared all to be under sin, from which they could not be delivered but by faith in Jesus Christ, the promised seed. (Challoner) — The law was not given to all; but all its precepts and prohibitions were binding under sin, and all violators of the law were guilty of sin.

 

[Wolves]

Why are you using a non approved Bible to determine weather a verse contradicts Catholic teaching

Here is the verse from a Catholic Bible (Douay-Rheims)

22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise, by the faith of Jesus Christ, might be given to them that believe.

Here is its meaning from the Haydock Bible Commentary, also a Douay-Rheims

Ver. 22. Hath concluded all under sin; i.e. hath declared all to be under sin, from which they could not be delivered but by faith in Jesus Christ, the promised seed. (Challoner) — The law was not given to all; but all its precepts and prohibitions were binding under sin, and all violators of the law were guilty of sin.

NAB is a Catholic Bible, I got mine (NAB) from a ceremony at my Catholic School and I saw a NAB Bible for sale in a Catholic store.

Here’s the book: amazon.com/Catholic-Answer-Bible/dp/1931709602

 

[tobinatorstark]

NAB is a Catholic Bible, I got mine (NAB) from a ceremony at my Catholic School and I saw a NAB Bible for sale in a Catholic store.

Here’s the book: amazon.com/Catholic-Answer-Bible/dp/1931709602

In the quote from the original post. You stated that it came from the New American Standard Bible (NASB) and not New American Bible (NAB). There are differences within them. The NASB is Protestant and the NAB is Catholic but liberal. This verse doesn’t contradict the Immaculate Conception, because Mary is sinless. You might want to more careful in your post in referring to which Bible you are using. NAB is not the NASB.

 

[tobinatorstark]

Furthermore, Gal 3:22 in the NAB states

But scripture confined all things under the power of sin, that through faith in Jesus Christ the promise might be given to those who believe. not what was quoted in the original post.

 

[Wolves]

Sorry, I didn’t realize that there was a difference.

But the Catholic verse still says that all things were confined under sin. Why would that not include Mary?

 

[tobinatorstark]

Sorry, I didn’t realize that there was a difference.

But the Catholic verse still says that all things were confined under sin. Why would that not include Mary?

because she had specially graces and was protected from above. She also made a covenant with God on her purity. again look in post above from the notes of the Haydock Bible Commentary

 

[CWBetts]

Sorry, I didn’t realize that there was a difference.

But the Catholic verse still says that all things were confined under sin. Why would that not include Mary?

We must also remeber that “all” is not alsways an inclusive “all” at times it is a general all. From the context, I believe this is speaking in generalizations, making this a general “all”.

 

[tobinatorstark]

We must also remeber that “all” is not alsways an inclusive “all” at times it is a general all. From the context, I believe this is speaking in generalizations, making this a general “all”.

exactly

 

[Tony_Souza]

You may want to ask your Protestant friend if this verse applies to Jesus. Since Jesus was a man, he would be included in “all” would he not? Hopefully your friend would not believe Jesus sinned. So then, if an exception could be made for Jesus, why not for Mary? Obviously this does not at all prove she was sinless, but it does not preclude it.

 

[Wolves]

You may want to ask your Protestant friend if this verse applies to Jesus. Since Jesus was a man, he would be included in “all” would he not? Hopefully your friend would not believe Jesus sinned. So then, if an exception could be made for Jesus, why not for Mary? Obviously this does not at all prove she was sinless, but it does not preclude it.

That’s what I ended up doing.

 

[los79]

Genesis 3:14-15 enmity between Mary and Satan. Enmity means hostility between enemies (hatred). If you sin than aren’t you taking Satan’s side. If god put enmity between mary and satan then how can you say that she ever sinned. You will here in response to this Romans 3:9-12; Paul is quoting the old testament, as it is written. (No one does good not even one). Romans 3:23, all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. Therefore Mary had to have sinned, really? Paul is quoting from the old testament in Rom 3:23; Psalms 14:1-5 “ there is none that does good, no not one” There are evil doers who do not good, and then there are the righteous. Only talking about those evil doers, if it was talking about all people then how could it talk about the generation of the righteous a verse later? If all have gone wrong then there are no righteous. Talking about the burden of original sin and not all men sinning, exceptions are made for infants and young children because we know that they have not actually committed a sin. Luke 1:6, john’s parents were walking with all righteousness and were blameless, how would this fit with all men have sinned? Luke 1:15 John the Baptist was filled with the holy spirit even from his mothers womb, Can one who is filled with the holy spirit their entire life, even before he is born commit sin? Luke 1:28 “Hail full of Grace,” Mary is full of grace even before she was pregnant. Luke 1:37 for with god nothing is impossible. Are there others in the bible who were without sin?

Revelation 14:3-5; “In their mouth no lie was found for they are spotless.”

Romans 6; if the wage of sin is death; then Enoch and Elijah must not have ever sinned because they never died. Enoch , Hebrew 11:5, never died, relates to Genesis 5:24. Elijah went up to heaven in a whirlwind, 2 Kings 2:11. Paul could not have been talking about all men without exception.