T
TOME525
Guest
There are two aspects of the Nature of God that I would hold all Christians believe. One is that God is immutable the other is God is omniscient.
St Thomas Aquinas when writing on the reasonableness in the belief of God, held it was necessary that God be “Immutable” that is God doesn’t change, God cannot change. Yet through out the Old Testament there are situations where God does change. At one point he is ready to destroy Sodom and all its inhabitants, yet Abraham talks Him out of it. I think of the verse where it say about our God being “Slow to anger”. Being slow to anger, however, indicates a change in God in that He will eventually become angry. And there are plenty ofother examples found in the Old Testament of God changing His mind. Now if St Thomas was correct and God cannot change, how can God as described in the Old Testament be God with all the changing He does.
The second point is God is Omniscient, that is He knows all - has foreknowledge of all. Yet in Genesis alone, with in the first four chapters we have God being ignorant of the situations, namely, right after the Fall God didn’t know where Adam and Eve were because they were hiding. After Cain killed Able, God has to ask Cain where Able was.
I am sure that many will say this is an example of God knowing the truth and just making those responsible admitt the truth. But I ask, if this is so, isn’t this an interpetation? Why or how does one come interpret these passages, not taking them on their face value, but insist that other passages must be taken literally? How do you establish such a norm.
So this goes back to my original question, asked a little differently perhaps, is the Bible the Word of God and accepted as truth? And in accepting the Bible as such doesn’t this prove that the God of the Bible is not God at all?
St Thomas Aquinas when writing on the reasonableness in the belief of God, held it was necessary that God be “Immutable” that is God doesn’t change, God cannot change. Yet through out the Old Testament there are situations where God does change. At one point he is ready to destroy Sodom and all its inhabitants, yet Abraham talks Him out of it. I think of the verse where it say about our God being “Slow to anger”. Being slow to anger, however, indicates a change in God in that He will eventually become angry. And there are plenty ofother examples found in the Old Testament of God changing His mind. Now if St Thomas was correct and God cannot change, how can God as described in the Old Testament be God with all the changing He does.
The second point is God is Omniscient, that is He knows all - has foreknowledge of all. Yet in Genesis alone, with in the first four chapters we have God being ignorant of the situations, namely, right after the Fall God didn’t know where Adam and Eve were because they were hiding. After Cain killed Able, God has to ask Cain where Able was.
I am sure that many will say this is an example of God knowing the truth and just making those responsible admitt the truth. But I ask, if this is so, isn’t this an interpetation? Why or how does one come interpret these passages, not taking them on their face value, but insist that other passages must be taken literally? How do you establish such a norm.
So this goes back to my original question, asked a little differently perhaps, is the Bible the Word of God and accepted as truth? And in accepting the Bible as such doesn’t this prove that the God of the Bible is not God at all?