Does the Bible teach that women were created for men's sake?

[BlueKumul]

11 Corinthians 8:9

“For man did not come from woman, but woman from man; neither was man created for woman, but woman for man.”

Yet the catechism says men and women were created for each other, does it mean the catechism is at odds with the Biblical worldview as some protestants would suggest?

 

[1Lord1Faith]

does it mean the catechism is at odds with the Biblical worldview as some protestants would suggest?

Biblical worldview? What is that?

Second of all, “does the Bible teach…” sounds like a distinctly Protestant way of speaking. The Bible doesn’t teach anything. The Bible is a collection of books. People teach. The book in question here was written by St. Paul. So, we would say “What is St. Paul teaching here?” That is easy enough to find out by reading the notes that are provided on the USCCB website from that particular chapter.

1 Corinthians, CHAPTER 11 | USCCB

BTW, the correct way to write the chapter and verse is: 1 Corinthians 11:8-9

 

[Jen7]

I don’t see why both can’t be true at the same time. Maybe in one sense she is created for him… and in another sense they are created for each other. Eve was called Adams helpmeet… but also obviously there is no communion of persons without both of them fully invested in the relationship! I don’t know - I don’t see a contradiction, just a couple different angles of looking at something. There are probably many more angles. For example, in one sense are they also both “for” their children?

 

[BlueKumul]

So, you say is possible that (say) Abraham taught one thing, Isaiah taught another and St Paul yet another, despite all of them were inspired by the same God.

My way of thinking may be heavily influenced by Protestantism, since I’ve been always reading a lot of Protestant bloggers.