Dogma on Mary

[Vic2]

One of the four dogmas on Mary is that she was a perpetual virgin. When, where, and by whom was this formally defined as a dogma? What officially made this a dogma of the church?

 

[Atreyu]

One of the four dogmas on Mary is that she was a perpetual virgin. When, where, and by whom was this formally defined as a dogma? What officially made this a dogma of the church?

The Lateran Council, 649. See here.

It is an official teaching of the Church by virtue of it being defined under anathema at a General Council.

 

[Atreyu]

Correction: this council that I mentioned was not a General Council. However, the inclusion of the word “virgin” in the Nicene Creed is pretty authoritative. I suppose you could say it was defined in Council at the Nicene Council, by virtue of its inclusion in the Creed. However, it was also included in the Apostles’ Creed which predates the Nicene Council, so we’re talking about a dogma that has been defined in the earliest of days.

I suppose you could say that the word “virgin” in the Creed only implies that she was a virgin at the time of the birth of Jesus. I would suggest reading the article I linked to above for more information.

 

[Ron_Conte]

The Marian Library in Dayton, Ohio, has a good article on this point, namely that Mary’s Perpetual Virginity is an infallible teaching and a dogma (under a less restrictive definition of the term ‘dogma’), but was never solemnly defined by a Pope or Ecumenical Council.
campus.udayton.edu/mary/questions/faq/faq18.html

Dogmas do not have to have been solemnly defined by a Pope or a Council.

Ron