S
SandraHarrison
Guest
Hi,
in the christian life science book I am teaching from (Apologia General Science), it spends a paragraph on a Catholic Bishop from the 1300’s by the name of Thomas Bradwardine. The Author claims he was really the first “reformer”, and questioned much of church teaching. (He also happened to be a fantastic scientist and mathemetician which is why he is listed) I doubted his reformer status, as I had never heard this claim.
I went to the Catholic Encyclopedia to research this claim; I found this:
**“Leaving the monasteries and turning our attention to the secular clergy, we encounter men who, in spite of many defects, are not without merit in dogmatic theology. The first to deserve mention Is the Englishman Thomas Bradwardine (d. 1340), the foremost mathematician of his day and Archbishop of Canterbury. ****His work “De causa Dei contra Pelagianos” [Which means Of the cause of God against the Pelegians] **** evinces a mathematical mind and an unwonted depth of thought. **Unfortunately it is marred by an unbending, somber rigorism, and this to such an extent that the Calvinistic Anglicans of a later century published it in defense of their own teachings."
and in another place in the encyclopedia:
**"It was essentially on this basis that the bishops of fourteen ecclesiastical provinces finally came to an agreement and made peace in the Synod of Tousy held in 860 . The teaching of the Middle Ages is generally characterized on the one hand by the repudiation of positive reprobation for hell and of predestination for sin, on the other by the assertion of Divine predestination of the elect for heaven and the co-operation of free will; this **teaching was only for a short time obscured by Thomas Bradwardine and the so-called precursors of the Reformation (Wycliffe, Hus, Jerome of Prague, John Wesel).”
I’d like to correct the Author ( he also gets it wrong about Galileo) and particularly have some evidence to give the students to show that the author is sweeping someone up on the side of the Protestant Reformation who does not belong there. But these two paragraphs are rather nebulus. Does anyone know anything more?
Thanks,
Sandra
in the christian life science book I am teaching from (Apologia General Science), it spends a paragraph on a Catholic Bishop from the 1300’s by the name of Thomas Bradwardine. The Author claims he was really the first “reformer”, and questioned much of church teaching. (He also happened to be a fantastic scientist and mathemetician which is why he is listed) I doubted his reformer status, as I had never heard this claim.
I went to the Catholic Encyclopedia to research this claim; I found this:
**“Leaving the monasteries and turning our attention to the secular clergy, we encounter men who, in spite of many defects, are not without merit in dogmatic theology. The first to deserve mention Is the Englishman Thomas Bradwardine (d. 1340), the foremost mathematician of his day and Archbishop of Canterbury. ****His work “De causa Dei contra Pelagianos” [Which means Of the cause of God against the Pelegians] **** evinces a mathematical mind and an unwonted depth of thought. **Unfortunately it is marred by an unbending, somber rigorism, and this to such an extent that the Calvinistic Anglicans of a later century published it in defense of their own teachings."
and in another place in the encyclopedia:
**"It was essentially on this basis that the bishops of fourteen ecclesiastical provinces finally came to an agreement and made peace in the Synod of Tousy held in 860 . The teaching of the Middle Ages is generally characterized on the one hand by the repudiation of positive reprobation for hell and of predestination for sin, on the other by the assertion of Divine predestination of the elect for heaven and the co-operation of free will; this **teaching was only for a short time obscured by Thomas Bradwardine and the so-called precursors of the Reformation (Wycliffe, Hus, Jerome of Prague, John Wesel).”
I’d like to correct the Author ( he also gets it wrong about Galileo) and particularly have some evidence to give the students to show that the author is sweeping someone up on the side of the Protestant Reformation who does not belong there. But these two paragraphs are rather nebulus. Does anyone know anything more?
Thanks,
Sandra