C
Christbearer98
Guest
I’m sure there’s about a thousand “unmoved mover” questions here but I’m looking for a very specific answer to a very specific question about Dr. Edward Feser’s Unmoved Mover argument he explains in his books so I ask the people here to take a gander.
It seems to me like we don’t need an Unmoved Mover in terms of simultaneous causation. My thought is this. Let’s take the example of an indent in a pile of leaves. The indent is actualized by a rock. But once the rock is placed there, the thing that actualized the rock’s location does not need to continue being there. Similarly, if we say the existence of a cup of tea depends upon the water existing, which depends upon h2O existing, which depends upon atoms existing, and matter depends on form to actualize it, etc. But what if the matter was actualized and just remained that way? Wouldn’t this end the regress of simultaneous movers and then there would continue a regress of sequential movers which Aquinas explicitly does not argue must be finite?
Let me know if that makes sense. Thank you all in advanced.
It seems to me like we don’t need an Unmoved Mover in terms of simultaneous causation. My thought is this. Let’s take the example of an indent in a pile of leaves. The indent is actualized by a rock. But once the rock is placed there, the thing that actualized the rock’s location does not need to continue being there. Similarly, if we say the existence of a cup of tea depends upon the water existing, which depends upon h2O existing, which depends upon atoms existing, and matter depends on form to actualize it, etc. But what if the matter was actualized and just remained that way? Wouldn’t this end the regress of simultaneous movers and then there would continue a regress of sequential movers which Aquinas explicitly does not argue must be finite?
Let me know if that makes sense. Thank you all in advanced.