M
MysticMissMisty
Guest
Salvete, omnes!
(First, please feel free to move this thread if you think it is not appropriately placed. I am very often unsure as to where to place many of my threads.)
Many times in the Torah, sacrifices of consecration and otherwise are said, quite plainly to be, for instance, for the purpose of “atonement” and not as representative of some future atonement.
How can we Christians, then, claim that there was absolutely no real effect of such sacrifices?
I am trying better to understand the arguments in favor of this position in light of the texts of the Torah/Old Law.
Any help would be much appreciated.
Gratias.
(First, please feel free to move this thread if you think it is not appropriately placed. I am very often unsure as to where to place many of my threads.)
Many times in the Torah, sacrifices of consecration and otherwise are said, quite plainly to be, for instance, for the purpose of “atonement” and not as representative of some future atonement.
How can we Christians, then, claim that there was absolutely no real effect of such sacrifices?
I am trying better to understand the arguments in favor of this position in light of the texts of the Torah/Old Law.
Any help would be much appreciated.
Gratias.