Sean.McKenzie:
In Mt. 1:23 the angel gabriel says
However in Mt. 1:25
So why did she not name Jesus Emmanuel?
Because the Immanuel -prophecy was not directly about Jesus.
What seems to have happened is, that a prophecy which was probably intended to refer to a Jewish prince (which is what the passage in Isaiah 7 suggests, if one takes all of it together: it does mention Assyrians, and Assyria had been defunct for 600 years by the time Jesus was born ) was re-applied to Jesus, in the realisation that it was in some ways even more appropriate to Him.
So it would apply to Jesus by a sort of Spirit-led re-interpretation of the OT text. (Re-interpretation is often to be seen in the OT itself - and in the New.)
As Jesus is indeed “Immanu-El”, “God with us”, the epithet would be exceedingly appropriate. It is for Him an epithet - not a personal name. So, no contradiction.
As for “His name shall be called…” - The ancient Semites - not the Israelites only, at all - thought of the name as disclosing the character of the person or thing named. To call some one’s name Emmanu-El, is the same as saying that that person is what he or she is called. This idea is very prominent in ancient ideas about creation: to call something by its name, is to bring it into existence, to make it operative.
See where Adam names the animals in Genesis 2
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