Emotions and God

[CanadianApostle]

My Catholic friend and I were recently debating the nature of love… I said that love is an act of the will which can be accompanied by emotions, but the emotions are not necessary (ie when we love someone I don’t like such as our neighbor)… she claims there are two types of love… love which comes from duty, which has no feelings accompanying it… and love which is accompanied by feelings which is greater… I, on the other hand, hold that although emotions might make loving a person easier… the emotions in themselves don’t make our love any deeper or more meritorious… I made the observation that God does not have emotion, therefore it is self-contradictory to claim that love without emotion is of lesser value then God cannot be infinitely loving… she however argued that Christ wept for Lazarus… I agreed saying that that came with his human nature, however that did not explain how God the Father and the Holy Spirit, since they have no human nature could have perfect love if perfect love requires emotion. Her return was that God shows emotion in the Old Testament (ie. He was angered with Sodom and Gomorrah, he showed sadness at the Fall of Adam and Eve etc…) I know it is bad Philosophy to say that God, Who is of an infinite nature could have emotion, since this would mean that a finite creature could alter a higher infinite being (thus violating the “law of causality” I think it is called, you know, where you cannot get more out of your effect than you had in your cause)… Anyways… this person is almost completely ignorant of Philosophy and Theology so she sees no problem with such reasoning. How can I explain and give proof, in simple lay-man’s terms, that these passages are not referring to an emotion in the human sense, but are rather the writers’ expression of God’s action. Do I have this right? Do I have this all mixed up? I’m still only 16, so I’m very green in philosophy… I’m open to correction…

In advance, Thanks!
GB<><

 

[Christy_Beth]

God created us with feelings, emotios. There are times in the Old Testament where it talks about the wrath, or anger, of God. And there is the saying “God is Love.” It isn’t just a part of him, all of Him is love. He is the definition of Love.

In the New Testament, we are told to Love our neighbors as ourselves. When I was growing up, I was told that if I loved myself, I was being selfish. But God says we are to love ourselves. We need to set boundries, as some would put it. We are to take care of ourselves. Like eating properly and all of that. Does this help?

 

[johnco]

hi,

perhaps, in the Life of the Trinity there is a peace, joy, and ecstacy way beyond “emotion”. this Love is reserved for us. it will be ours for all eternity.

God bless,

johnco

 

[AlphaOmega]

My Catholic friend and I were recently debating the nature of love… I said that love is an act of the will which can be accompanied by emotions, but the emotions are not necessary (ie when we love someone I don’t like such as our neighbor)… she claims there are two types of love… love which comes from duty, which has no feelings accompanying it… and love which is accompanied by feelings which is greater… I, on the other hand, hold that although emotions might make loving a person easier… the emotions in themselves don’t make our love any deeper or more meritorious… I made the observation that God does not have emotion, therefore it is self-contradictory to claim that love without emotion is of lesser value then God cannot be infinitely loving… she however argued that Christ wept for Lazarus… I agreed saying that that came with his human nature, however that did not explain how God the Father and the Holy Spirit, since they have no human nature could have perfect love if perfect love requires emotion. Her return was that God shows emotion in the Old Testament (ie. He was angered with Sodom and Gomorrah, he showed sadness at the Fall of Adam and Eve etc…) I know it is bad Philosophy to say that God, Who is of an infinite nature could have emotion, since this would mean that a finite creature could alter a higher infinite being (thus violating the “law of causality” I think it is called, you know, where you cannot get more out of your effect than you had in your cause)… Anyways… this person is almost completely ignorant of Philosophy and Theology so she sees no problem with such reasoning. How can I explain and give proof, in simple lay-man’s terms, that these passages are not referring to an emotion in the human sense, but are rather the writers’ expression of God’s action. Do I have this right? Do I have this all mixed up? I’m still only 16, so I’m very green in philosophy… I’m open to correction…

In advance, Thanks!
GB<><

Emotions can be sporadic or spontaneous. Feelings are much more consistent. God certainly does have emotions! He elevated the human nature as part of His own! Since then, you could say, emotions have another meaning on a spiritual level. God certainly did not lessen Himself of His Infinite attributes when He did this through the Incarnation. God showed His Justice on part of His own divine nature in these OT events were of such cause.

 

[cpayne]

Hi. You might think of it this way: Sometimes when we “love” someone (without any particular emotions), we mean we desire the best for that person. We could love everyone in the world this way. Sometimes we “love” someone (WITH emotions) because we desire some sort of union with that person, up to and including marriage and sexual relations. We cannot love everyone in this way.

With humans, these loves do not have to overlap. I can desire the best for someone without emotionally desiring union with them. I can also desire union with someone, such as a sexual union, without desiring the best for them, or even desiring anything good for them—emotions, in other words, can lead humans in both good and bad directions.

However, this is not the case with God. When God desires the very best for someone (emotionlessly, impassively), what He really is desiring for them is a passionate union with Himself (emotionally). With God, both kinds of love are really the same. So it becomes a paradox: When God loves infinitely without emotion (desiring the best for a human), He is at the same time and to the same degree loving that person with infinite emotion (desiring union). In theological terms, God is impassive (not moved at all by emotions) and also infinitely emotional (God is Love). Passionate union with God is impassively and objectively the best condition possible for a human.

I hope all this makes some sense.

 

[CanadianApostle]

Thank you for your replies!
However, I’m not sure I totally agree with you. God is love, undoubtedly. He is a deeper love than we can comprehend, but how can his love be “passionate” (in the human sense as in emotional) if He is both outside of time and space, and immutable. Is God’s love simply so intense that it surpasses all passion and emotion?

Really my question is not about love… Its about whether or not God has emotion. If God is immutable, then would emotion not imply change-ability? Also, if God is outside of time and space, all time is ever present to Him correct? Well then how could God “feel” sad, happy, joyful, and angry at all at the same time? Does God have emotions or feelings? That is my main question… and what is the reasoning behind your answer? In my opinion its bad logic and bad philosophy to believe that He does…

 

[cpayne]

Thank you for your replies!
However, I’m not sure I totally agree with you. God is love, undoubtedly. He is a deeper love than we can comprehend, but how can his love be “passionate” (in the human sense as in emotional) if He is both outside of time and space, and immutable. Is God’s love simply so intense that it surpasses all passion and emotion?

Really my question is not about love… Its about whether or not God has emotion. If God is immutable, then would emotion not imply change-ability? Also, if God is outside of time and space, all time is ever present to Him correct? Well then how could God “feel” sad, happy, joyful, and angry at all at the same time? Does God have emotions or feelings? That is my main question… and what is the reasoning behind your answer? In my opinion its bad logic and bad philosophy to believe that He does…

I think you’re right in one sense, but I wouldn’t necessarily state it the way you do. Being immutable doesn’t necessarily rule out having emotions—it just means the emotions would never change. I think God could even be “impassive” in the theological sense and still have emotions, as long as the emotions didn’t change or dictate God’s judgment (although I’m not so sure about this statement as about the other one).

However, you are right in that all our talking about God is analogical in nature. God’s relationship with us by analogy “looks like” what a passionate desire for union would “look like” if we found it in a human. It just seems easier to refer to that relationship in emotional terms, as the Bible itself does. But that does not mean that God “has” emotions in the same way humans have emotions. Is this what you are driving at with your question? If so, I agree, but I’m still going to refer to God’s emotions.

 

[Tick_Dawk]

Remember that the Bible is describing God in human terms. It can’t be taken literally.