S
snowman10
Guest
I am going to present my case on Euthanasia and we can discuss from there.
The definition I will be using for Euthanasia is as follows:
Euthanasia, or mercy killing, is the act of ending a life by various methods, with the sole intent of ending suffering.
There are two types of Euthanasia, active and passive. Active is taking deliberate measures to ending life. For example, the injection of lethal medications. Passive is allowing the person to die as a result of the disease that has been determined to be fatal. An example would be letting someone who is dying of cancer go without ordinary means, like food and water or any extraordinary measures, such as artificial ventilation.
Here is my argument:
The intent of those that purely wish to end the suffering of a person in agonizing and debilitating pain and in which death is imminent and all treatments are in essence futile, could be viewed upon as merciful. However, I am not advocating active euthanasia by any means. I also believe that passive is not appropriate when we deny ordinary means (food and water).
But there is a case to be made for The Law of Double Effect. The scenario plays out like this: John Smith is dying of terminal cancer. He is bed ridden and in agonizing pain. His prognosis is poor and is expected to live only a matter of days. John wants to be put out of his suffering. The medical team knows that they can ease his suffering greatly by giving him a large amount of morphine, thus allowing him to slip into a coma. They also know that giving him such a large amount will speed up his death. However, their INTENT is to make him comfortable, yet they still are aware of how their action will affect the dying process. In reality, the overdose of morphine could easily be the cause of death. But if that was not the intended effect, by The Law of Double Effect, it is permissible. This can also be applied to Ectopic Pregnancy when the child is not directly killed but indirectly by the removal of damaged and diseased parts of the mother.
So the question is if our intention is not to kill but to ease suffering, yet we know our action has a high likelihood of being the indirect cause of death, how can we reconcile this with the idea of Natural Death?
dxu
p.s. please keep in mind my definition of Euthanasia–I am not referring to the senseless acts of killing the handicapped or elderly that become burdensome to their families.
The definition I will be using for Euthanasia is as follows:
Euthanasia, or mercy killing, is the act of ending a life by various methods, with the sole intent of ending suffering.
There are two types of Euthanasia, active and passive. Active is taking deliberate measures to ending life. For example, the injection of lethal medications. Passive is allowing the person to die as a result of the disease that has been determined to be fatal. An example would be letting someone who is dying of cancer go without ordinary means, like food and water or any extraordinary measures, such as artificial ventilation.
Here is my argument:
The intent of those that purely wish to end the suffering of a person in agonizing and debilitating pain and in which death is imminent and all treatments are in essence futile, could be viewed upon as merciful. However, I am not advocating active euthanasia by any means. I also believe that passive is not appropriate when we deny ordinary means (food and water).
But there is a case to be made for The Law of Double Effect. The scenario plays out like this: John Smith is dying of terminal cancer. He is bed ridden and in agonizing pain. His prognosis is poor and is expected to live only a matter of days. John wants to be put out of his suffering. The medical team knows that they can ease his suffering greatly by giving him a large amount of morphine, thus allowing him to slip into a coma. They also know that giving him such a large amount will speed up his death. However, their INTENT is to make him comfortable, yet they still are aware of how their action will affect the dying process. In reality, the overdose of morphine could easily be the cause of death. But if that was not the intended effect, by The Law of Double Effect, it is permissible. This can also be applied to Ectopic Pregnancy when the child is not directly killed but indirectly by the removal of damaged and diseased parts of the mother.
So the question is if our intention is not to kill but to ease suffering, yet we know our action has a high likelihood of being the indirect cause of death, how can we reconcile this with the idea of Natural Death?
dxu
p.s. please keep in mind my definition of Euthanasia–I am not referring to the senseless acts of killing the handicapped or elderly that become burdensome to their families.