M
Mom_of_one
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Could this be an example of moral reservation?
Okay, what is the OFFICIAL magisterium’s interpretation of that passage?When one says (based upon reading the bible) that Jesus didn’t know when the Last Judgement will be, then that person gives a perfect example of why we Catholics are blessed with the gift of the magisterium, and why individual interpretation (to determine doctrine) of the Bible is wrong.
Are you sure it is in #475 of the Cathechism?I’m sorry, but had to address this. This is heresy. Please read
475 in the Catechism.
Jesus is FULLY GOD AND FULLY MAN.
He knew very well the day and the hour of the end of time. He is God, and not only does he know when the world will end, he will end it.
He didn’t reveal the time to the Apostles because he wanted them to be ready always, as he wants us to be ready always.
He is the Word become flesh precisely so he could suffer. Please, Catholics, check your Catechisms or Canon Law before you post things you’re not sure of. A lot of non-Catholics read these boards. We have to have our facts straight and our stuff together.
This is from vatican.va/archive/catechism/p122a3p1.htm#II**475 **Similarly, at the sixth ecumenical council, Constantinople III in 681, the Church confessed that Christ possesses two wills and two natural operations, divine and human. They are not opposed to each other, but cooperate in such a way that the Word made flesh willed humanly in obedience to his Father all that he had decided divinely with the Father and the Holy Spirit for our salvation.110 Christ’s human will "does not resist or oppose but rather submits to his divine and almighty will."111
According to this interlinear Greek / English online bible, you’re right. It does not say anything about the Son not knowing.Hate to be the scripture Nazi, but mathew 24:36 according even to the KJV (blegh) translation states: But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
As we know that Jesus was one with the Father through the mystery of the Holy Trinity, we know that Jesus was also omnitient of all things in the universe. Jesus knew, what he is saying is YOU (we) cannot know the day and the time.
It makes sense too, if we all knew when our time came to die, it would be much easier to simply sin alot in comfort with every intention of trying to cheat the system right before our death. As we know, false confessions and trying to cheat the system doesnt bring true absolution, this way we must always be ready and always be holy in our hope for eternal salvation.
St. Gregory is of course correct. Jesus did have the information since, as God, He possesses all things. What St. Gregory is saying is that Jesus, in the humility of His humanity, chose (an act of human will) not to look. And this was because[Jesus] knew the day and hour of judgment in the nature of humanity, but yet not from the nature of humanity.
of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father ONLY"Wait a minute. In Matthew 24:36 Jesus says "
Actually, I would say that this is faulty logic. it could just as likely be that Someone was making a translation of the bible, saw where Jesus said “No one knows,” looked through and found that Christ never reveals it, concluded that the no one list included the Son and therefore added that line. Of course the translator of the NAB says they’re right in that regard, but that doesnt MAKE them right. Regarding the fact that the Catechism itself states that Jesus was fully omnitient, it is reasonably safe to make a judgement call as to which is a more accurate representation of the situation. Not saying the KJV is right by any means, but there are apparently many translations that leave it out.I just checked my NAB aboiut the verse in Matthew (24:36). It says:
“But of that day and hour no one knows, neither the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone.”
The footnotes say: “Many textual witnesses omit *nor the Son, *which follws Mk 13, 32. Since its omission can be explained by reluctance to attribute this ignorance to the Son, the reading that includes it is probably original.”
Mk 13: 32 says the same thing - the very same thing.
So, according to this footnote, it seems the transations that leave out *nor the Son *(KJV), was left out on purpose because someone took that to mean that Jesus didn’t know everything so it went against His omnipotence. The translations that do have nor the Son are probably correct. Am I understanding this correctly?
A short answer as to why Jesus did not reveal the date of the Last Judgement is that, revealing this date was not Jesus’s mission.Okay, what is the OFFICIAL magisterium’s interpretation of that passage?
Both # 474 and # 475 of the CCC appply. The reference in # 474 to Acts 1:7 is particularly apt.Are you sure it is in #475 of the Cathechism?