M
MysticMissMisty
Guest
Salvete, omnes!
I have recently been reading up on the issue of slavery in the teachings of the Catholic Church and have come across a common teaching even by popes starting in the Middle Ages that, while it was moral to enslave non-Christians, it was not permitted for Christians to enslave other Christians.
I am seeing this as I read excerpts from various papal bulls from this time period and onward.
Indeed, what am I missing here? Why was it for some time permitted to Christians to enslave non-Christians but was prohibited to them to enslave fellow Christians? What was the difference in morality here?
Fruthermore, were the documents on which these practices based to be considered infallible? Indeed, many sources for these practices are papal bulls which (apparently?) prohibited Christians from owning other Christian slaves. So, would not these declarations in these bulls be considered infallible teachings on the matter? So, then, it is infallibly taught that Christian enslavement of non-Christians is moral but that Christian enslavement of other Christians is moral?
Again, what, precisely, am I missing here?
Any clarification would be much appreciated.
I suppose a more broad question that relates to this matters is: when are pronouncements/decrees in papal bulls to be considered infallible and when are they not to be considered so?
Gratias multas.
I have recently been reading up on the issue of slavery in the teachings of the Catholic Church and have come across a common teaching even by popes starting in the Middle Ages that, while it was moral to enslave non-Christians, it was not permitted for Christians to enslave other Christians.
I am seeing this as I read excerpts from various papal bulls from this time period and onward.
Indeed, what am I missing here? Why was it for some time permitted to Christians to enslave non-Christians but was prohibited to them to enslave fellow Christians? What was the difference in morality here?
Fruthermore, were the documents on which these practices based to be considered infallible? Indeed, many sources for these practices are papal bulls which (apparently?) prohibited Christians from owning other Christian slaves. So, would not these declarations in these bulls be considered infallible teachings on the matter? So, then, it is infallibly taught that Christian enslavement of non-Christians is moral but that Christian enslavement of other Christians is moral?
Again, what, precisely, am I missing here?
Any clarification would be much appreciated.
I suppose a more broad question that relates to this matters is: when are pronouncements/decrees in papal bulls to be considered infallible and when are they not to be considered so?
Gratias multas.