Verse 5 talks about one baptism yet we have baptism by blood, baptism by water and baptism by desire…Is this contradictory? What do you make of this passage?
You only have to be baptised once for it to be effective. One does not need to be re-baptised. So, whether it’s water, blood, or desire, one time is enough.
Baptism by desire is also possible once only for similar reasons. It means that a person who died without Baptism but who desired Baptism, or who would have desired Baptism if he had known to, would receive the graces as if he had actually been Sacramentally Baptized with water.
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