R
Ron_Conte
Guest
When was the teaching that Mary was ever-virgin first established as dogma?
Of course, I believe this teaching, and I know that it is the infallible teaching of the universal magisterium. But some persons claim that a dogma must have been taught by a solemn definition of the Roman Pontiff, or by the solemn definition of an Ecumenical Council. So which Pope used papal infallibility to define it as a dogma, or which Council?
Ron Conte
Of course, I believe this teaching, and I know that it is the infallible teaching of the universal magisterium. But some persons claim that a dogma must have been taught by a solemn definition of the Roman Pontiff, or by the solemn definition of an Ecumenical Council. So which Pope used papal infallibility to define it as a dogma, or which Council?
Ron Conte