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fulloftruth
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I have been told by a protestant on these forums that people in the Catholic Church cannot even agree on how many times the Popes have spoken infallibly. Is this true?
Protestants seem to be more worried about that doctrine than any Catholic should be.I have been told by a protestant on these forums that people in the Catholic Church cannot even agree on how many times the Popes have spoken infallibly. Is this true?
I would say to him/her, “So what?” We’re all learning. A lot of protestants don’t know their own faith. Hopefully, they’re learning, too. I wouldn’t worry so much about what people on the forum know or don’t know. I would be more concerned with what the church actually teaches and for that I would go to the catechism or another reliable source.I have been told by a protestant on these forums that people in the Catholic Church cannot even agree on how many times the Popes have spoken infallibly. Is this true?
Infallible means without error. In the broadest sense, to speak infallibly means to tell the truth. How many times in the last two thousand years has the pope spoken the truth? Too many times to count!I have been told by a protestant on these forums that people in the Catholic Church cannot even agree on how many times the Popes have spoken infallibly. Is this true?
In part it is true for the reason alot of Catholic’s do not know their faith very well. So to answer your question we must point out that the Catholic teaching on papal infallibility, which is defined in the 19th century during Vatican Council I, applies only when the pope makes statements ex cathedra (Latin, literally meaning “from the seat”, [of authority];in ancient Jewish tradition one teaches autoritatively from a seated position),i.e., explicity when pronouncing a formal dogmatic teaching. This has only been exercised twice in the history of Church, to proclaim the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary (1854) and the doctrine of the Asumption of Mary (1950).I have been told by a protestant on these forums that people in the Catholic Church cannot even agree on how many times the Popes have spoken infallibly. Is this true?
What evidence does Witherup provide from an official document of the Magisterium that there has been only two papal ex cathdra statements? I can quote many Catholic authors that make this assertion, but I have never seen any Catholic able back up the assertion with evidence.This has only been exercised twice in the history of Church, to proclaim the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary (1854) and the doctrine of the Asumption of Mary (1950).
Ref. “Biblical Fundamentalism What every Catholic should know” pg. 79 by Ronald D. Witherup
God Bless all here.
Matt 16 18 I’m not trying to argue with you I’m just providing the best answer to this question that I can. I believe what Witherup was saying is since papal infallibity as defined by 1st Vatican Council it has only been proclaimed twice. This is not to say that it was not used before then.What evidence does Witherup provide from an official document of the Magisterium that there has been only two papal ex cathdra statements? I can quote many Catholic authors that make this assertion, but I have never seen any Catholic able back up the assertion with evidence.
As far as I am concerned, until I see some convincing proof to the contrary, it is only a Catholic urban legend that there are only two papal ex cathedra statements.
Just because something as not been formally defined as infallible means that it is fallible. Anything taught on faith and morals by the extraordinary, or ordinary, magisterium is infallible.Matt 16 18 I’m not trying to argue with you I’m just providing the best answer to this question that I can. I believe what Witherup was saying is since papal infallibity as defined by 1st Vatican Council it has only been proclaimed twice. This is not to say that it was not used before then.
God Bless all here
Canon 753 Whether they teach individually, or in Episcopal Conferences, or gathered together in particular councils, Bishops in communion with the head and the members of the College, while not infallible in their teaching, are the authentic instructors and teachers of the faith for Christ’s faithful entrusted to their care. The faithful are bound to adhere, with a religious submission of mind, to this authentic magisterium of their Bishops.
Actually, the proclamation of the Immaculate Conception in 1854 predates the First Vatican Council in 1869-1870.I believe what Witherup was saying is since papal infallibity as defined by 1st Vatican Council it has only been proclaimed twice. This is not to say that it was not used before then.
I am not sure that I understand the point that you are trying to make.I wonder if, perhaps, a bit of confusion is creeping into the discussion?
Infallibility is a protection from error. That is, when those who exercise the Magisterium of the church present a teaching in the areas of faith and morals, that teaching will be protected from error.
It is a separate question whether or not that teaching is de fide , a part of the deposit of the faith, and therefore necessary for salvation.
I could be wrong, but I get the sense that these two things are being conflated. Although all teaching of the Magisterium is infallible, protected from being in error, not all is de fide.
Actually, the proclamation of the Immaculate Conception in 1854 predates the First Vatican Council in 1869-1870.
The problem is they view our Church as if it was like theirs. It isn’t.I have been told by a protestant on these forums that people in the Catholic Church cannot even agree on how many times the Popes have spoken infallibly. Is this true?
Perhaps you could explain exactly what you mean? As it is written I would disagree with it. The magisterium teaches on faith and morals. They are free from teaching error. What else are they teaching that would not binding as you state?Infallibility is a protection from error. That is, when those who exercise the Magisterium of the church present a teaching in the areas of faith and morals, that teaching will be protected from error.
It is a separate question whether or not that teaching is de fide , a part of the deposit of the faith, and therefore necessary for salvation.
They sometimes offer teaching on secular policy issues, typically through national bishops’ conferences.Perhaps you could explain exactly what you mean? As it is written I would disagree with it. The magisterium teaches on faith and morals. They are free from teaching error. What else are they teaching that would not binding as you state?
Fair enough. I would imagine that bishops conferences can only be said to be part of the magisterium when they are speaking as Rome speaks. Their own opinions are not part of the magisterium.They sometimes offer teaching on secular policy issues, typically through national bishops’ conferences.
A few years ago here in Canada, for instance, they put out a teaching paper on the economy. No one had to adopt it as their political agenda, but coming from where it did, it was incumbent upon Catholics in Canada to read and consider it in their deliberations (not saying all that many did, mind you).
Likewise in our recent election, they put out a number of items for the faithful to consider when deciding how to vote, but told no one how to vote.
Inasmuch as these things are meant to help form conscience, they are teaching. The discussions are free from error. But not only are they not binding, they make no attempt to bind to a particular course of action.
Blessings,
Gerry