False Antiquarianism vs. Early Church Tradition

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AHelpingHand

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(Didn’t know where to place this topic).

For false antiquarianism, I want to defend Early Church Beliefs/Traditions without being accused of “false antiquarianism because you believe what the early Christians believed, so that belief can always evolve.” I attend a Protestant school, so I don’t know how to respond to this accusation, if ever made. They might say that doctrine developed, and that some doctrine might have not been understood correctly, so that’s why we have Lutheranism or Calvinism, because they “understood misunderstood doctrine”. How can one reconcile Early Church Beliefs (especially the Fathers) and false antiquarianism (e.g. public confessions, Communion in the hand are better) so that a better understanding of both is made?
 
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Some thoughts:

It might help to take each individual issue separately. Therefore confession is one issue, the Eucharist the next issue, etc. That way if they say that confession has changed, you can do research on it. Catholic Answers has a ton of information that you can review.

Second, Cardinal John Henry Newman wrote on the development of doctrine, based upon what an earlier writer wrote (and whose name I cannot remember right now). Newman states that our understanding of doctrine can development and deepen, but it cannot be reversed as it were.

Some changes to the sacraments are not changes to doctrine, but changes to the discipline of how the sacrament is administered. Thus we went from public confession to private confession. This is a change in how the sacrament is administered, not a change to the doctrine of the sacrament.

Next, if your friends say the the Catholic Church teaches “so and so”, ask them to tell you what Catholic document they got that from. Generally, they are only repeating what they heard and they don’t have a Catholic document they can point to.

Pax
 
Some changes to the sacraments are not changes to doctrine, but changes to the discipline of how the sacrament is administered. Thus we went from public confession to private confession. This is a change in how the sacrament is administered, not a change to the doctrine of the sacrament.
Great example. I guess this still pertains to the subject matter of this thread: why must Catholics adhere to the unanimous decisions of the Church Fathers as “worthy for belief” without being accused of false antiquarianism (“just because Early Church believed it doesn’t mean that it is true. They are fallible”)?

Side Note: Would answering the above question fall back on the infallibility of the Church as guided by the Holy Ghost and its bishops, because not all of the Church Fathers were bishops?
 
I think Cardinal Newman’s example could explain why we believe in the teachings of the Church Fathers. Newman wanted to find which church that existed while he was alive was the true church/which one followed the teachings of the early church. He was able to look at the Catholic Church’s teachings and trace them back all the way to the Church Fathers. Not only were the Fathers united on doctrine, but that doctrine has not changed over the last two millennia. (It has developed as I mentioned above, but it has not changed.) If you have a copy of the Catechism of the Catholic Church look at the reference section at the back. You will see that it has a TON of references back to the Church Fathers. What the Fathers taught in their time, the Church still holds today.

As far as this being a gift of the Holy Spirit, I would say yes. Jesus at the Last Supper said that he would give the apostles the Holy Spirit to guide them to all truth. (John 14: 25-26). The gift of the Holy Spirit continues in the Church to this day and would have guided the Fathers.

I hope this helps!

Pax
 
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Well for starters, the distinction between Church discipline and teaching needs to be taken into account here.
 
Yes. That’s an easy one. I will have to do more research, but why do we fall back on the Church Fathers? Is it because of their closeness to the Apostolic Age? For the Apostolic Age had Fathers who were first-hand students of the Apostles, such as Polycarp.
 
Yes they were close to the Apostles. The way I read an explanation was if Polycarp taught something and he was taught by St. John (I think St John taught St Polycarp) and if that teaching is wrong, then who got it wrong, St John or St Polycarp? The most likely answer is that neither got it wrong and that the teaching is correct. So St Polycarp got it from the source as it were.

Combine that with the fact that What’ll you have a 2000 year old continuous teaching and you can be sure of having the correct teaching.

Pax
 
In summary, “false antiquarianism” is the belief that because the Early Church practiced something in a particular way (e.g. public Confessions, the hotly debated “Communion in the hand” debacle that doesn’t seem to have a definite answer IMO), then that is the best (and possibly only) form of practice.
 
“False antiquarianism” was addressed by Pope Pius XII in Mediator Dei.
 
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In summary, “false antiquarianism” is the belief that because the Early Church practiced something in a particular way (e.g. public Confessions, the hotly debated “Communion in the hand” debacle that doesn’t seem to have a definite answer IMO), then that is the best (and possibly only) form of practice.
If that is “false antiquarianism,” then what is it when the Early Church did something in a particular way, but now people want to forbid that way of doing things?

D
 
Could you please clarify? Do you mean why, for example, some people want to forbid a practice, such as Communion in the hand?
 
Could you please clarify? Do you mean why, for example, some people want to forbid a practice, such as Communion in the hand?
Okay, I’ll try again.
  1. Claiming that the way the Early Church did a certain practice is the only way to do that practice is called “false antiquarianism”.
  2. Claiming that the way the Early Church did a certain practice is wrong and should now be forbidden is called ???
I’m asking generically, not in reference to any specific practice, and I’m looking for a term, the equivalent of “false antiquarianism”.
 
Well, I guess to answer #2 would be “heresy” in a sense. You would be deviating from the Early Church teachings and indirectly believing that they were false/mislead. I do not know of a formal name for #2, though.
 
Anyone interested in this subject should read the learned, brilliant and readable book “The Organic Development of the Liturgy “ by Dom Austin Reid
 
People make statements about “the Early Church” as if it were one thing. But there were thousands of early Parishes, varying over time. They even used different scriptures, likely some difference in practices.

So I am wary about those who find evidence of a certain practice, in one parish, in one decade. Is that proof that all parishes did that routinely, in all decades for 400 years?

History tends to record the exceptions rather than the usual.
 
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Exactly. Until Constantine the whole Christian church was ‘underground’, and the Bible was not in canon until the end of the 4th century, St. Paul particularly spoke of holding fast to traditions both written and oral, and many ‘works’ were out there that could be gnostic, or could be spiritual reading but not inspired Scripture. Also the Faith spread from Jerusalem out to, in those 400years, India, the farthest reaches of the Roman Empire including Gaul and Britain, Saharan Africa, etc., and not only did things just seem to become ‘secure’ at the end of the 4th century such that people could start to establish ‘brick and mortar’ churches and go to them without fear, but then almost immediately the whole Arian mess started up for the next couple of generations, to be followed almost immediately by the invasions of the Huns, Goths, Vandals, the establishment of the Eastern Church which then almost immediately was attacked with the heresy of iconiclassicism and other extremist practices while the West struggled with the breakup and reintegration of Western civilization,
And on TOP of that libraries were burned (and in fact the reason we still have a lot of books from the Greeks and Romans is due to the fact that they were copied by the monks in Ireland in the 7th-10th centuries), dozens of different cultures which had been more or less homogenized by the Roman Empire tried to assert themselves. . .
And don’t forget the Muslims came around in the 7th century and fought Christians for people and land. . .

And there was always the threat of disease. Poor crops. Early death from causes that are easily treatable today.

And yet, when the majority of the earliest 4 centuries of Christian history are so fragmented we are supposed to accept that we ‘know for a fact’ the way that ‘authentic Christians worshipped’ and that we ‘know for a fact’ that it was intended to be celebrated in amber in the very same way forever and ever while everything else in the world changed? How come we aren’t segregated by sex? How come we aren’t limited to jobs that were held by people in the first 4 centuries only? How come we don’t all wear robes and sandals and recline at table in our home churches, with the women fixing food and eating last of course? How come we don’t use candles only? How come we aren’t singing Gregorian chant style melodies —the early Christians didn’t have guitars and four-hymn sandwiches.

Yep, ‘false antiquarianism’. We don’t want real homespun and robes, we want tie dye and jeans because, “people back then just had work clothes that were ‘poor’. We don’t want real services in Aramaic, Greek, or Latin even though all of those were used in the first four centuries, well before English as a language existed, because we THINK it was all about ‘vernacular’, when the evidence that a true liturgical language, a sacred language, was used from the get-go. We don’t want segregation of sexes and we wail to heaven about the oppression of women. We demand the Church change THAT but then claim that the “Old Mass’ changed all the ‘real ‘teachings’ and that the current one ‘just changed back to the real stuff’.

Pfui.
 
To make sure I understand what you are saying, you are criticizing whom (if anyone)? I was a bit lost in understanding the quotations as if I was to read them as sarcasm.
 
Not a criticism per se, a comment regarding the strangeness of those who would demand the one and despise the other.
 
(My reply): Such as “rad Trads” despising hand Communion?

(My little tangent that is not connected with the reply): I, honestly, don’t know what the true history of hand Communion is. But, regardless, now is now, so we have to look at what is the most reverent way of receiving our Lord in the Eucharist (and safest, as particles of the Eucharist are fully Jesus, 100%, so dropping Him wouldn’t be good).
 
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