The reason why Roe V Wade passed in the first place was that there was no legal definition (that would be accepted by the Supremes) that allowed a pre-born baby to be treated as a “person” in a legal sense.
So that part of it would have to be done at a Federal level. Whether the Supremes change their mind and say “Oops, we guess a pre-born baby is a person now,” whether Congress could pass legislation providing that definition to the courts, or whether a constitutional definition would be needed is the issue.
However, as far as assigning penalties for it and the type and severity of the crime, that is, in fact, properly done at the state level…unless it becomes a federal issue by way of Constitutional amendment (which would kind-of violate the basic tenets of the bill of rights, particularly the 10th Amendment)
So how’s that for a non-answer???