L
lablover
Guest
I’ve been thinking about the few spots in the Gospels where something is written in Hebrew or Aramaic, followed by the translation–like when Mary Magdalene calls Jesus “Raboni” and it’s followed by the explanation that it means Teacher. They do that with Jesus’ last words on the cross, when he raises the little girl to life, and when he tells the blind (or deaf) man’s eyes (or ears) to be opened. Why? My husband and I have theorized that the words used can’t be adequately translated so the original word is put in for anyone who might be able to speak the language. This doesn’t happen in the epistles or in the Old Testament (that I can remember, but I’m no Scripture scholar.) Anyway, does anyone know why the “foreign” phrases are kept in?