P
Pistos
Guest
I am a Catholic.
Canon 3 of the fourth Lateran Council has been brought to my attention, in particular, the first paragraph which employs the verb “exterminate”.
My questions are:
(0) Does this have to do with doctrine? Or, more to the point, does this exemplify fallibility of the pope or the ecumenical councils at all?
(1) Did the Church really mean for persons deemed heretics to be killed? I’ve heard that the original text can also be translated “expel” (as seen, for example, in this translation). Expulsion, of course, is a much softer term. My search (on the web) for the original, non-English text of the council canons didn’t turn up anything.
(2) If so, was it right or wrong for the Church to have commanded this?
(3) If it was right, how can that be reconciled with the Church’s current teachings on murder and war? (CCC Part 3, Section 2, Chapter 2, Article 5)
(4) If it was wrong, how can it be that an ecumenical council, supposedly falling under the sphere of infallibility of the Church, make this error?
I am not a Church historian by any stretch of the imagination, so any “further reading” type URLs are appreciated.
Thanks in advance.
Canon 3 of the fourth Lateran Council has been brought to my attention, in particular, the first paragraph which employs the verb “exterminate”.
My questions are:
(0) Does this have to do with doctrine? Or, more to the point, does this exemplify fallibility of the pope or the ecumenical councils at all?
(1) Did the Church really mean for persons deemed heretics to be killed? I’ve heard that the original text can also be translated “expel” (as seen, for example, in this translation). Expulsion, of course, is a much softer term. My search (on the web) for the original, non-English text of the council canons didn’t turn up anything.
(2) If so, was it right or wrong for the Church to have commanded this?
(3) If it was right, how can that be reconciled with the Church’s current teachings on murder and war? (CCC Part 3, Section 2, Chapter 2, Article 5)
(4) If it was wrong, how can it be that an ecumenical council, supposedly falling under the sphere of infallibility of the Church, make this error?
I am not a Church historian by any stretch of the imagination, so any “further reading” type URLs are appreciated.
Thanks in advance.