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DavidCro
Guest
OK, here I go again. How do we reconcile free will with sociological norms. To explain, we know how certain group of people acts. Surely, they won’t act indentically, but there will be certain objective truth, a genralization that has it’s roots in reality, shall we say.
For example, generally, people who listen to metal music tend to use drugs. Amishes tend to be more conservative, Catholics tend to, say, vote democrat over republican (or that is how it used to be, at least). So, we see certain shall we say, semi-deterministic line here. How does one then reconcile the doctrine of free will with this? Thanks.
Note: I googled, but found nothing. It’s disappointing that popular you tube and internet catholic apologets don’t refer to this question, which is becoming more and more important, especially in the light of the fundamentalist new atheist movement and scientism. Inter-Christian squabbling is pointless in these times.
Thank you all in advance.
For example, generally, people who listen to metal music tend to use drugs. Amishes tend to be more conservative, Catholics tend to, say, vote democrat over republican (or that is how it used to be, at least). So, we see certain shall we say, semi-deterministic line here. How does one then reconcile the doctrine of free will with this? Thanks.
Note: I googled, but found nothing. It’s disappointing that popular you tube and internet catholic apologets don’t refer to this question, which is becoming more and more important, especially in the light of the fundamentalist new atheist movement and scientism. Inter-Christian squabbling is pointless in these times.
Thank you all in advance.
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