F
freesoulhope
Guest
I have been pondering a thought…
When we speak of beginnings, we our speaking about something happening within time. But if time itself had a beginning, can we reasonably say that the universe “began”, when taking into account that there was no “time” in which time could begin. The implication is a parodox which says that there was never a “time” when time did not exist, since there was never a “before time” ( “Before” being a time related word). This would seem to give us the impression that time is eternal in a very odd way; yet we can see, through the discoverys of big cosmology and certain mathematical principles, that "time is “finite” along with the universe. The universe cannot be both infinite and finite in nature.
Does anyone wish to rise to the challenge of this brain-busting paradox?
When we speak of beginnings, we our speaking about something happening within time. But if time itself had a beginning, can we reasonably say that the universe “began”, when taking into account that there was no “time” in which time could begin. The implication is a parodox which says that there was never a “time” when time did not exist, since there was never a “before time” ( “Before” being a time related word). This would seem to give us the impression that time is eternal in a very odd way; yet we can see, through the discoverys of big cosmology and certain mathematical principles, that "time is “finite” along with the universe. The universe cannot be both infinite and finite in nature.
Does anyone wish to rise to the challenge of this brain-busting paradox?