T
tablecorner
Guest
Has the seat of Peter been used only twice since the early church til now?
Excerpts from the Vatican I Relatio of Bishop Vincent Ferrer Gasser on July 11th, 1870 (translation taken from “The Gift of Infallibility” by Rev. James T. O’Connor)Has the seat of Peter been used only twice since the early church til now?
Thus, the sentence ‘The Roman Pontiff is infallible’ should not be treated as false, since Christ promised that infallibility to the person of Peter and his successors, but it is incomplete since the Pope is only infallible when, by a solemn judgment, he defines a matter of faith and morals for the Church universal
…
For we define: the dogmatic judgments of the Roman Pontiff are infallible. Therefore let us also define the form to be used by the Pontiff in such a judgment. It seems to me that this was the mind of some of the most reverend fathers as they spoke from this podium. But, most eminent and reverend fathers, this proposal simply cannot be accepted because we are not dealing with something new here. Already thousands and thousands of dogmatic judgments have gone forth from the Apostolic See ; where is the law which prescribed the form to be observed in such judgments?
Nope. This is a weird myth that has become popular for some odd reason, probably because the two famous Marian definitions (one was before Vatican I) had so much fanfare.Has the seat of Peter been used only twice since the early church til now?
The Gift of Infallibility: The Official Relatio on Infallibility of Bishop ... - Vinzenz Gasser - Google BooksBut, most eminent and reverend fathers, this proposal simply cannot be accepted because we are not dealing with something new here. Already thousands and thousands of dogmatic judgments have gone forth from the Apostolic See; where is the law which prescribed the form to be observed in such judgments?
I think some imagine papal infallibility as the Pope autocratically defining doctrine. Rather, as the Council noted, it is often a result of a synod or even general Council when the Pope at then end issues the decisions in his own name. Even in the two famous Marian examples, the Pope first received the opinions of all the bishops of the world and their overwhelming agreement.The Roman pontiffs, too, as the circumstances of the time or the state of affairs suggested, sometimes by summoning ecumenical councils or consulting the opinion of the Churches scattered throughout the world, sometimes by special synods, sometimes by taking advantage of other useful means afforded by divine providence, defined as doctrines to be held those things which, by God’s help, they knew to be in keeping with Sacred Scripture and the apostolic traditions.
Thank you for your very in depth reply. Did i read correctly that infallibility comes with the Pope’s discussion with the College of Bishops?tatement is not explicitly a solemn definition personally promulgated by the Pope and it is not explicitly professed on behalf of the College of Bishops, then it does not have the Ordinary Magisterial quality of Infallibility. This does not mean that the statement is not preserved from err with regard to faith and morals. On the contrary, Papal infallibility (note the little ‘i’) preserves all teachings of the Pope from error with regard to faith and morals. The lack of the aforementioned requirements simply means that the infallibility invoked by the Pope, while true, is not Magisterially binding as the two other Infallible (note the capital ‘I’) scenarios.
In short, something taught personally by the Pope can be infallible
In the late 18th and 19th century, the Rationalists opposed the concept of faith, subjecting everything to reason alone. The Church, on the other hand, teaches revealed truth must be believed by faith. This only makes sense if what we are believing with faith cannot be subject to error (something subject to error, should not be given absolute faith).Why did the church need to have a dogma of Papal Infallibility?
Therefore, the Pope must be infallible in those case where, if he erred, either the whole Church would defect or the primatial See would defect from the Church, and both are impossible. Clearly not everything a Pope says or does has such an effect, but only those universal and definitive judgments he makes as supreme teacher as to what is necessary to maintain communion in the one faith. Thus, the distinctions in the definition of Vatican I.…from the beginning [the Roman See] has received the Christian faith from her founders, the princes of the Apostles of Christ, and remains undefiled unto the end, according to the divine promise of the Lord and Saviour himself, which he uttered in the holy Gospels to the prince of his disciples: saying, Peter, Peter, behold, Satan has desired to have you, that he might sift you as wheat; but I have prayed for you, that (your) faith fail not. And when you are converted, strengthen your brethren.
http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/3813.htm