. . . .from the "Father through the Son"

[mark_a]

Thanks for taking time to look at this post. Before answering this post, please know that I’m *not *asking about the filioque, it’s definition, history, councils, or reasons for or against it.

I am a Roman Rite Catholic who attends a Maronite parish. It is small and very diverse. We have Ukranians, Coptics, Chaldeans, Orthodox, Romans, and probably others who attend.

One day while reciting the creed, I heard someone say “from the Father through the Son”.

My question is which rite(s) recite the creed this way?

Thanks in advance!!

 

[mark_a]

bump

 

[Mongo]

Thanks for taking time to look at this post. Before answering this post, please know that I’m *not *asking about the filioque, it’s definition, history, councils, or reasons for or against it.

I am a Roman Rite Catholic who attends a Maronite parish. It is small and very diverse. We have Ukranians, Coptics, Chaldeans, Orthodox, Romans, and probably others who attend.

One day while reciting the creed, I heard someone say “from the Father through the Son”.

My question is which rite(s) recite the creed this way?

Thanks in advance!!

None. The creed either has the filioque or it doesn’t, there isn’t a third version.

 

[dochawk]

“through” is a widely suggested solution to the problem, which is consistent with both eastern and western theology, and the differences between greek and latin that caused the problem in the first place.

The greek word used indicates “proceeds in origin”, while the latin to which it is translated does not. If you translate the latin creed with filioque back into greek with the same verb it is indeed heretical.

Eastern and western theologians will agree that the Spirit proceeds in origin only from the Father, but temporally from both Father and Son. “Through the son” is an attempt to deal with this.

The unilateral addition to the creed by one church (Rome) without the others is another issue for another thread.

[yes, a thousand year sinful division stems from differences between latin and greek . . .]

AMDG

hawk

 

[Wandile]

The greek word used indicates “proceeds in origin”, while the latin to which it is translated does not. If you translate the latin creed with filioque back into greek with the same verb it is indeed heretical.

Yes but using the word through could solve the problem in the Greek text as following the example of St Tarasius at the 7th council

Eastern and western theologians will agree that the Spirit proceeds in origin only from the Father

Indeed

but temporally from both Father and Son.

Not only temporally but eternally from both the father and the son (at least for the catholic perspective)

“Through the son” is an attempt to deal with this

It’s more than that. It is the equivalent partristic formulation of the East. Through is used for the eternal relationship. It’s a way to explain the eternal relationship yhe Holy Spirit has the the father and the Son without creating to ultimate origin or sources.

 

[dochawk]

It’s more than that. It is the equivalent partristic formulation of the East. Through is used for the eternal relationship. It’s a way to explain the eternal relationship yhe Holy Spirit has the the father and the Son without creating to ultimate origin or sources.

mostly. But the issue isn’t just the correctness of the statement, but the unilateral alteration of the creed from a council.

AMDG

hawk

 

[MorEphrem]

Sounds like someone trying to be novel contingent upon the above discussion.