Full of Grace

[jmcclane]

Hello,
I am studying the Greek text to find a little more meaning on the “Full of Grace” phrase in Luke 1:28. I see the word khareetoo but I read, in the Ignatius study Bible commentary that word kecaritomene has a fuller meaning and has a reference to time in that Mary has always been full of grace. I can not seem to find this latter word however it appears to be very close to the former word. Can you shed some light on this and point me in the right direction? Thank you and May God bless you.

Joe M

 

[MrS]

jmcclane:

Hello,
I am studying the Greek text to find a little more meaning on the “Full of Grace” phrase in Luke 1:28. I see the word khareetoo but I read, in the Ignatius study Bible commentary that word kecaritomene has a fuller meaning and has a reference to time in that Mary has always been full of grace. I can not seem to find this latter word however it appears to be very close to the former word. Can you shed some light on this and point me in the right direction? Thank you and May God bless you.

Joe M

the fuller meaning is in its use… I believe it indicates the Truth that Mary is continuing to be Full of Grace. The perfect past participle (if memory serves right) declares her to have been, is, and will continue to be kecaritomene. Hence, the angel does not address her by name, Mary, but rather by her singular state of grace, unique in mankind.

From this we derive her Immaculate Conception, and also her Assumption. The Church declares that “at the end of her early life…” she was assumed into heaven body and soul. It is reasonable because she would not have suffered the consequences of original sin if she were kecaritomene, And to think God has limits and could not have made her soul clean before her conception is to doubt God - IMHO.

Food for thought… if Mary was less than kecaritomene, and was born with original sin… Jesus, her Son, would not have only been a Jew (because Him Mother was), but He would have also inheirited her orignal sin. He did not, and she did not have original sin at conception.

 

[Church_Militant]

Does this help any? Mary Full of Grace

 

[tuopaolo]

jmcclane:

Hello,
I am studying the Greek text to find a little more meaning on the “Full of Grace” phrase in Luke 1:28. I see the word khareetoo but I read, in the Ignatius study Bible commentary that word kecaritomene has a fuller meaning and has a reference to time in that Mary has always been full of grace. I can not seem to find this latter word however it appears to be very close to the former word. Can you shed some light on this and point me in the right direction? Thank you and May God bless you.

Joe M

You are not looking at the Greek text carefully. kecaritomene is one of the grammatical derivations of khareetoo. Greek is a highly inflected language. The uniqueness of the “word” here lies in its use, in its being used as an actual name for Mary as opposed to her being just described that way.

 

[Todd_Easton]

Kecharitomene appears in Luke 1:28
kai eiselqwn proV authn eipen, caire, kecaritwmenh, o kurioV meta sou.
I don’t know New Testament Greek but I have heard that it means: one who has been, who is now, and who is expected to continue to be (-mene) highly or most highly (ke-) favored or graced by God (-charito-). By addressing Mary as Kecharitomene, the archangel Gabriel is testifying that Mary is the epitome of what it means to be favored or graced by God; Mary is God’s masterpiece of creation.

 

[MisterMagister]

Kecharitomene appears in Luke 1:28kai eiselqwn proV authn eipen, caire, kecaritwmenh, o kurioV meta sou.

“kekaritomene” is a perfect participle. A perfect participle describes an action which is complete, [perfect comes from the Latin word ‘perficere’ which means to finish.] This participle indicates that the person described, i.e. Mary, has been graced, fully.

The other form, which ends in “-oo” is the first principal part of the verb. This is the form which you would use to look up the word in a Greek dictionary. [Most Greek verbs have six principal parts. Numerous forms are made from these parts.] The “ke-” at the beginning is a reduplication of the initial consonant followed by an “e”. This is ONE way in which the perfect tense and perfect participles are formed in classical and ancient Greek.

I hope this helps.