Gal 4:4, "born of the woman". Is truth important?

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NoelFitz

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Sometime ago in the theme Mary in Scripture the video en.gloria.tv/?media=27468 was recommended.

In this Mr Tim Staples claimed, more that once, that Paul said in Gal 4:4 that Jesus was “born of the woman”.

I have looked at about 30 translations of this verse and not one has this translation. GUNAIKOS (Gen Sing of GUNH).

Please look at the video and decide for yourself. Only two people participated in the discussion about Mary in Scripture and the other person disagreed with me. However I do think that our views were expressed in a courteous and respectful way and that neither of us attacked the other personally.

I appreciate being here and am strengthened in the faith by the sound Catholic views expressed, thus I want to be positive and constructive.

I ask three questions.
  1. Did Paul say that Jesus was “born of the women” in Gal 4:4?
  2. Is it incorrect to say Jesus was “born of the women” based on Gal 4:4?
  3. Does it make any difference whether the definite article is used or not?
I really would like this issue resolved, as it is very important to me to be convinced of the integrity, accuracy and truthfulness of CA.
 
NoelFitz - I had viewed the previous thread. The other fellow that participated pointed out that, while Tim said “the woman”, the screen correctly read “a woman”. I agree with you that this is important. Consider how many people will view this and not bother to read the screen, believing that Tim will give a correct reading. I would suggest that adding “the” in this instance would be very similar to Martin Luther adding the word “alone” to “saved by faith”.

To answer your questions -
  1. Paul did NOT say that Jesus was “born of the women” in Gal 4:4.
  2. It is incorrect to say Jesus was “born of the women” based on Gal 4:4.
    3.It does make a difference whether the definite article is used or not (see Prov 30:6)
I would also point out that Jesus addressed other women as “woman” (see Matt 15:28, Matt 26, Luke 7, Luke 13:11-16, John 4, John 8:10, and John 20:15), including a woman of Canaan and one taken in the very act of adultery.
 
Hi Noël,

Unfortunately, I could only hear parts of the recording. Anyway, here is my anwer to your questions :
  1. Gal 4,4, says, lin Greek : genomenons ek gunaikos, genomenon upo nomon" “made (born) of woman, made (born) under the law.” You could also translate “born of a woman”. The meaning is that he is truly human. In Greek, there is no indefinite artcle (a, an) but there is a definite article (the, in Greek Ho, Hê, To) There is no article here, so that the only intrepretations left are those I gave above.
  2. Yes.
  3. Yes, as explained above.
 
Verbum,

I really am most appreciative that you replied to me.
I know that you have over 1500 posts and that you are a Catholic.

Over time I been impressed with your posts and they are always sound and solidly based on the one true faith.

I think that the word of God is important and an understanding of the Bible is vital. To think about the the NT is of fundamental importance for all Christians.

However I was concerned that I was over-reacting. I found it difficult that I could not get anyone in CA to reply to me.

I was also concerned in case my posts would be seen as indicating a lack of loyalty. I appreciate very much being here and am encouraged by our sharings.

So, once more, many thanks.
 
Cachonga,

many thanks for replying to me.

I like your motto, Well said.

I see you fundamentally agree with me, for which I am grateful.

I was concerned that I was overreacting and that my contributions might have been harsh and inappropriate.

I see you are a former Roman Catholic., Would you ever thing of coming back to the Church? There are many very genuine and solid folk here. However I do not know why you left, but it would be great if your would reconsider Catholicism.
 
Hi Noël,

Unfortunately, I could only hear parts of the recording. Anyway, here is my anwer to your questions :
  1. Gal 4,4, says, lin Greek : genomenons ek gunaikos, genomenon upo nomon" “made (born) of woman, made (born) under the law.” You could also translate “born of a woman”. The meaning is that he is truly human. In Greek, there is no indefinite artcle (a, an) but there is a definite article (the, in Greek Ho, Hê, To) There is no article here, so that the only intrepretations left are those I gave above.
  2. Yes.
  3. Yes, as explained above.
Hey Verbum!

You may notice that there is no definite article preceding “law” in the Greek, and yet your translation of the Greek put one there. And many translations do this. The insertion of “the” is used by the translators here to bring out what they think is Paul’s meaning. Perhaps his use of “woman” should have a similar insertion to bring out his meaning, even though it has not been traditionally translated this way. Inserting the definite article in both places has the added benefit of drawing out a parallelism which Paul may have intended: the woman, the law. See also my post from earlier this morning.

May you be blessed!
Pete
 
Just to say that articles (a, the, some etc) are often used differently in foreign languages and depends on translation. I don’t know Greek. The article “the” would suggest a woman that Paul knew or had previously mentioned. The article “a” could mean any woman. “The” is more specific.
 
Budgie2

thanks for your contribution.

I agree with your post, in general.

That is why in a previous discussion I wrote:
I was disappointed with this video,as the question was not answered and scripture was incorrectly quoted.
In the video the claim is made that Gal 4:4 has “the woman” rather than “a woman”. Then the bulk of the video is about seeing “the woman” as a title for Mary.
I have looked at about 30 translations of Gal 4:4 and most have “a woman”, some have “woman”, but not one has “the woman”. The Greek NT (UBS 4th Ed.) has γυναικός (GUNAIKOS, gen.sing of GUNH) without s definite articel. Thus it is wrong to say Paul said “born of the woman”.
There is no need for Catholics to misuse scripture.
 
Hi Pete,

You may notice that there is no definite article preceding “law” in the Greek, and yet your translation of the Greek put one there.

And I thought you wouln’t notice! (s)

Actually, as I was doing a literal translation, I shouldn’t have put in “the”. But you could translate “Born of woman, born under law”. As hinted above, the use of the definite article is justified when you are talking about something or someone mentioned already or generally known. Now, no woman has been mentioned by Paul before; he is not speaking of a particular woman. So using the indefinite article is justified. On the other hand, we all know what law he is talking about, so the use of the definite article in English is justified.

Verbum
 
Wouldn’t it be more appropriate to carry out this discussion with Tim Staples, or with a New Testament Greek scholar? Most of us here don’t know Greek, and we certainly don’t know Mr. Staples. So what on earth do you expect us to say, much less do about it?
 
Hi Noël,

Over time I been impressed with your posts and they are always sound and solidly based on the one true faith.

You don’t know how much I appreciate that remark. Often, a lot of research and reflection goes into a post, and the person for whom it is written does not even acknowledge it. I urge members to remember that this is a forum and not an encyclopedia. “Forum” implies conversation, discussion.

Well anyway, this shows me that, even when I don’t get a reaction, my posts are being noticed and hopefully helping.

Verbum
 
Verbum,

I appreciate also your reply to me.

The discussion about Gal 4:4 is coming to a happy conclusion.

As you can gather I was upset by Mr Tim Staples’ video.

Initially it seemed that neither Catholic Answers or Gloria.TV would reply to me and Gloria.TV, who appears to have made the video, did not accept a posting from me.

However here and now also in Gloria.TV, who published both my postings eventually, I have received encouragement and there have been several deep and thoughtful views expressed. I have also received a number of private messages.

Thus I am relieved that in Catholic groups views disagreeing with established writers are allowed and concerns can be aired openly and with mutual respect.

I have still not heard from anyone connected with Catholic Answers, in spite of many attempts to make contact.
 
Sometime ago in the theme Mary in Scripture the video en.gloria.tv/?media=27468 was recommended.

In this Mr Tim Staples claimed, more that once, that Paul said in Gal 4:4 that Jesus was “born of the woman”.

I have looked at about 30 translations of this verse and not one has this translation. GUNAIKOS (Gen Sing of GUNH).

Please look at the video and decide for yourself. Only two people participated in the discussion about Mary in Scripture and the other person disagreed with me. However I do think that our views were expressed in a courteous and respectful way and that neither of us attacked the other personally.

I appreciate being here and am strengthened in the faith by the sound Catholic views expressed, thus I want to be positive and constructive.

I really would like this issue resolved, as it is very important to me to be convinced of the integrity, accuracy and truthfulness of CA.
Greetings NoelFitz,

While I’m no expert in Greek, here’s my two cents
I ask three questions.
  1. Did Paul say that Jesus was “born of the women” in Gal 4:4?
Maybe

Galatians 4:4
οτε δε ηλθεν το πληρωμα του χρονου εξαπεστειλεν ο θεος τον υιον αυτου γενομενον εκ γυναικος γενομενον υπο νομον

το, του, ο, and τον are usually translated as “the” and there is no article before γυναικος (of-woman) or νομον (law)

As for “γενομενον υπο νομον,” it’s proper to say “born under law” and not “a law” because there is only one law intended, that is of Moses.

However its OK to say “born under the law” because we know what law is intended.

This is VERY important to understand because of John 1:1

John 1:1
εν αρχη ην ο λογος και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον και θεος ην ο λογος
In beginning was the Word and the Word was with the God and God was the Word

Notice that there are no articles before αρχη (beginning) and the last θεος (God)

Since there is only one God, it cannot be translated “a god” as some have argued
Its still proper to say “the God”

It’s also proper to say “the beginning” for αρχη since there is only one beginning.

And for γυναικος (of-woman), this could mean three things:

A. It could mean “woman,” showing that Jesus had a human nature. However, if this was all that was meant, it would be more likely for Paul to have written “born from man” or something similar.

B. It could mean “a woman” and that woman is Mary. Like possibility “A,” it shows Jesus’ human nature, but its possible that it also gives Mary herself some importance. She is given part in Christ’s prophecy. This is only a possibility and not for certain. Also, there are other women, so it’s proper to read “a woman”

C. It could mean “the woman” since its possible (as in John 1:1) that there is only one woman that can be meant. Only one woman was immaculately conceived and able to give birth to Christ. Only one woman is considered “the Ark of the New Covenant.” Only one woman fulfilled the protoevangelium of Genesis 3:15 whose seed was Christ. This is “the” woman who is called Mary.

From a theological standpoint I believe this is true, however I don’t think this is what Paul meant to imply.

Also as Cachonga noted…

Proverbs 30:6
μὴ προσθῇς τοῖς λόγοις αὐτοῦ ἵνα μὴ ἐλέγξῃ σε καὶ ψευδὴς γένῃ

As you can see in the end, there is no article. However γένῃ (liar) is being attributed to someone, it can grammatically only be “a liar” because of the nature of the word “liar”

There are also many liars.

Also, depending on the word used, there need not be an article at all

Proverbs 30:6 (Young’s Literal Translation)
“Add not to His words, lest He reason with thee, And thou hast been found false.”
  1. Is it incorrect to say Jesus was “born of the women” based on Gal 4:4?
Yes, interpretively speaking.
  1. Does it make any difference whether the definite article is used or not?
Yes, theologically speaking.
However I was concerned that I was over-reacting. I found it difficult that I could not get anyone in CA to reply to me.
I don’t think you are overreacting. Its a rather large concern apologetically.

While I agree that Mary is important and do believe she was intended to be thought about in Gal 4:4, Mr. Staples is letting his theology get in the way. He is putting more focus on Mary than I think is really intended and this can potentially drive questioning Catholics and Protestants who notice further away from the Faith.
 
Omyo 12

I am very grateful to you for your detailed reply to my query.

In fact I am very grateful to all who contribute to the discussions I participate in.

I think CA is a great gift to the Church where Catholics can discuss in a safe and sympathetic way the word of God.

Participants vary in their knowledge and understanding, but everyone is treated with courtesy and respect.

Thanks to all of you.
 
NoelFitz,

You may want to ask Tim Staples directly about your concern. He will be answering questions live on the radio on Tuesday June 9 and you can pose your question then. Here is a link to the calendar of shows: catholic.com/radio/calendar.php

God bless!
 
I think that you will have to recognise that unless you suggest that the indefinite article NEVER be used in any english translation, its use is very much down to the discresion of the individual translator.

However since the the DEFINITE article does exist in greek its incertion or removal should be justified linguistically and contextually, For example, while in french one would always say “she filled the cup with (the) water and drank” unless the water had previously been identified in the text as significant and specific then it may be justified to translate removing the (2nd) definite article.

In the case of Galatians 4: 4 it seems the incertion of (ho) is more a case of preconceived bias towards a particular doctrinal view than something linguistically necessary or justifiable.
 
I think that you will have to recognise that unless you suggest that the indefinite article NEVER be used in any english translation, its use is very much down to the discresion of the individual translator.

However since the the DEFINITE article does exist in greek its incertion or removal should be justified linguistically and contextually, For example, while in french one would always say “she filled the cup with (the) water and drank” unless the water had previously been identified in the text as significant and specific then it may be justified to translate removing the (2nd) definite article.

In the case of Galatians 4: 4 it seems the incertion of (ho) is more a case of preconceived bias towards a particular doctrinal view than something linguistically necessary or justifiable.
Cashue

I am so grateful to you for continuing this discussion.

I think general agreement is emerging. However I do not fully understand your post.

1 The indefinite article is used in English translations. In most of these for Gal 4:4 “born of a woman” is used rather than “born of woman” . I may be incorrect in assuming you are replying to my concerns.

2 I agree that the use of the article differ in different languages.

3 Paul did not use the definite article with GUNAIKOS.

I think you are saying, in agreement with the general thrust of this discussion, that “born of the woman” is an incorrect translation.
 
I think the title of this thread seems to insinuate that Tim Staples doesn’t believe that truth is important, and it’s alluding that he’s intentionally twisting Scripture to “score points” for the Catholic view. I believe this is silly.

If you listen once again to the audio on the video, he’s not actually reading Scripture; he’s referring to the passages to make his point that Mary is “the” woman (which is the truth). The fact that he’s not reading is evident because later when he refers to Genesis 3:15 he jumbles up the text as well, but we all realize his point. And Mr. Staple’s point is absolutely correct. Mary is “the” woman spoken of in Genesis 3:15, Galatians 4:4 and Revelations 12. His point is that Mary IS mentioned in the New Testament, which was the question he was answering in the first place.

If Mary was not the woman whom St. Paul spoke about in Galatians, then the misquote would be egregious indeed. But the fact is, she is. To ask “Is truth important?” is to besmirch Mr. Staples by insinuating that he’s deliberately telling an untruth, and beleaguering the point begins to sound like malicious intent. But then again, sounding is much different than intending. 🙂
 
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