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dizzy_dave
Guest
In Genesis 1:26 it says “Let US make man in our own image and after our likeness.” Who is speaking here (which person of God)?,
And who is he talking to?
And who is he talking to?
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F
Fergal
Guest
In simple terms the ‘US’ referred to is the Most Holy Trinity. The most Holy Trinity held counsel before the creation of the world.
There is a wonderful book called “The Holy Spirit” by Del Valle. It explains the whole movement of God 3 persons 1 divine essence before the creation.
I have just gone to get quotes and have realised that I have given it for a time to a Priest.
Lets see if I can remember now…
The Holy Spirit is the motivator of our existence and the cause of our having been created.
God in essence has everything. In need of nothing. The Holy Spirit is the fountain of God’s goodness. A fountain is both a source and a supply. God does not need His own goodness to be supplied to himself alone since He is the source of that goodness! Hence the reason for the need of a creature on whom God can bestow all the goodness from this fountain.
God saw the rejection of this goodness and love by this creature and so gave himself in the Son to redeem us.
Adam fell through the happy fault the necessary sin so that God could raise us higher to the status of adopted children, dare I say even unto being His brothers and sisters.
So the US referred to in Genesis is the Holy Trinity holding counsel before the Creation of the universe.
God Bless,
Fergal
There is a wonderful book called “The Holy Spirit” by Del Valle. It explains the whole movement of God 3 persons 1 divine essence before the creation.
I have just gone to get quotes and have realised that I have given it for a time to a Priest.
Lets see if I can remember now…
The Holy Spirit is the motivator of our existence and the cause of our having been created.
God in essence has everything. In need of nothing. The Holy Spirit is the fountain of God’s goodness. A fountain is both a source and a supply. God does not need His own goodness to be supplied to himself alone since He is the source of that goodness! Hence the reason for the need of a creature on whom God can bestow all the goodness from this fountain.
God saw the rejection of this goodness and love by this creature and so gave himself in the Son to redeem us.
Adam fell through the happy fault the necessary sin so that God could raise us higher to the status of adopted children, dare I say even unto being His brothers and sisters.
So the US referred to in Genesis is the Holy Trinity holding counsel before the Creation of the universe.
God Bless,
Fergal
C
CMcLaurin
Guest
I think Dave wanted to know which person of the Most Blessed Trinity was speaking at the point when He said " … Let Us … ", and who was He speaking to? Or were all Three speaking in unison?
T
Todd_Easton
Guest
Christians might rightly see this as a reference to the Trinity either talking among themselves or to the angels. I don’t know about Hebrew and Greek but in English there are instances where the words us and our are used by a single individual to refer to himself. According to my Webster’s Dictionary, us and our are, respectively, the objective and possessive cases of* we* and we is “sometimes used by a person in referring to two or more persons including himself and often the person or persons addressed, or by a monarch, author, editor, judge, etc. in referring to himself.”
Since God is the King of kings, the Author of all life, and Judge of the living and the dead, it would seem appropriate for him to use the word we when referring to himself.
Some queen once said, “We are not amused!” This was an instance of a monarch using we to refer to herself, the so-called imperial we.
So, Jews would probably see in these verses instances of God using the imperial us and imperial our and that he was either speaking to himself or speaking to the angels. Or God was referring to himself and to the angels he was addressing when he used the words us and our.
Since God is the King of kings, the Author of all life, and Judge of the living and the dead, it would seem appropriate for him to use the word we when referring to himself.
Some queen once said, “We are not amused!” This was an instance of a monarch using we to refer to herself, the so-called imperial we.
So, Jews would probably see in these verses instances of God using the imperial us and imperial our and that he was either speaking to himself or speaking to the angels. Or God was referring to himself and to the angels he was addressing when he used the words us and our.
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Andreas_Hofer
Guest
In addition to the “royal we,” one could theorize that it is a logical grammatical consequence of the fact that the name for God at that point in the Bible is Elohim, which, while denoting the one God, is actually a plural noun.
R
RobedWithLight
Guest
Andreas Hofer:
But is the plurality of majesty (royal we) of common usage among the Old Testament writers ? Or is its use fairly recent?
In any case, the passage referred to is an instance of one divine person talking to another. It does not, I believe, refer to angels since it may imply that angels are co-creators with God.
Gerry
Indeed. Elohim is plural.
But is the plurality of majesty (royal we) of common usage among the Old Testament writers ? Or is its use fairly recent?
In any case, the passage referred to is an instance of one divine person talking to another. It does not, I believe, refer to angels since it may imply that angels are co-creators with God.
Gerry
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