D
De_Maria
Guest
** Genesis 15:6 Its a narrative comment! Who would have thought. **
Genesis 15:6
And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness.
In discussions with Protestants, they invariably read this as a command from God. They understand that God spoke and His Word is effective. Therefore, at that very moment, Abraham was justified.
In fact, I understood it that way until very recently. Like a week ago. I stumbled upon this verse:
James 2:21-24 (King James Version)
**21Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?
22Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
23And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
24Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.**
And St. Paul says something very similar. Lets look at his comment on the matter:
Romans 4
22And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness.
Notice the word, “therefore”?
That means that St. Paul just finished explaining why it was imputed to him for righteousness.
Why was it?
Well, St. Paul says it was because:**
17(As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were.
18Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations, according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be.
19And being not weak in faith, he considered not his own body now dead, when he was about an hundred years old, neither yet the deadness of Sarah’s womb:
20He staggered not at the promise of God through unbelief; but was strong in faith, giving glory to God;
21And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform.**
That is why, according to St. Paul, it was accorded to Abraham righteousness. Because he acted upon his belief. His belief, his faith was strong and although Abraham was aged and his wife aged and barren, he put his faith to work and united himself to his wife that she might bear a son.
Nowhere does Scripture say that Isaac was a child born outside the normal human process. Therefore, I say again, THEREFORE, it was credited to him righteousness. And therefore, Genesis 15:6 is a narrative commentary interposed by Moses to begin to explain why Abraham WOULD BE justified when he took his son, his only son, to the mount to be sacrificed to God. And there, the Word was fulfilled as St. James explains.
Sincerely,
De Maria
Code:
This is the verse I'm talking about.And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness.
In discussions with Protestants, they invariably read this as a command from God. They understand that God spoke and His Word is effective. Therefore, at that very moment, Abraham was justified.
In fact, I understood it that way until very recently. Like a week ago. I stumbled upon this verse:
James 2:21-24 (King James Version)
**21Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?
22Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
23And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
24Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.**
And St. Paul says something very similar. Lets look at his comment on the matter:
Romans 4
22And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness.
Notice the word, “therefore”?
That means that St. Paul just finished explaining why it was imputed to him for righteousness.
Why was it?
Well, St. Paul says it was because:**
17(As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were.
18Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations, according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be.
19And being not weak in faith, he considered not his own body now dead, when he was about an hundred years old, neither yet the deadness of Sarah’s womb:
20He staggered not at the promise of God through unbelief; but was strong in faith, giving glory to God;
21And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform.**
That is why, according to St. Paul, it was accorded to Abraham righteousness. Because he acted upon his belief. His belief, his faith was strong and although Abraham was aged and his wife aged and barren, he put his faith to work and united himself to his wife that she might bear a son.
Nowhere does Scripture say that Isaac was a child born outside the normal human process. Therefore, I say again, THEREFORE, it was credited to him righteousness. And therefore, Genesis 15:6 is a narrative commentary interposed by Moses to begin to explain why Abraham WOULD BE justified when he took his son, his only son, to the mount to be sacrificed to God. And there, the Word was fulfilled as St. James explains.
Sincerely,
De Maria
