Genesis 2:24

[Pemberley]

Does anyone have some insight as to why the phrase “Therefore a man leaves his father and mother…” is stated AT THIS POINT in this Scriptures? Adam did not have a “mother” per se.

Is it that the writer (Moses?) is writing with full knowledge of how the story ends, and assumes that we will apply the phrase to future generations?

If anyone has run across interpretations by the Fathers, or any ideas on this, I would appreciate them. Thank you!

 

[Genesis315]

Well, I assume it’s because it was not written by Adam. The Genesis story was written by someone in a later generation. The details of the story I would guess come from two sources, oral tradition and divine inspiration. The creation story was most likely passed down orally until someone had the bright idea to write it down. As they wrote it, they were inspired by the Holy Spirit in order that what they wrote would stay error free.

I’m no historian, but that would be my best guess.

 

[Steve_Andersen]

That sortta falls under the same umbrella as “where did Mrs. Cain come from?”

Once again it highlights that Genesis is allegorical

The stories told there sort of lay out explanations for the differences between the sexes, why we do the things we do, our need for each other, and the human condition in general.

It is fitting and proper (since humans and proto humans have been forming pair bonds for millennia) to emphasis at the beginning that we all grow up, leave home and take a mate.

No big mystery.