God's Moral Law and the Old Testament

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Riley259

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God’s moral laws are obviously infallible and thus not changable. Can someone tell me why some of the Old Testament patriarches including Abraham and David were allowed to have concubines, etc. Was this acceptable at that time and why?
 
The question one has to answer first is when did the Jewish people know that multiple marriages were unacceptable. From what I have read there are still Jews today who hold that there is no law against polygamy. There are others who follow a Rabbi who taught monogamous marriage only, starting at about 1000 A.D. Without Jesus’ statement about one man-one woman in the New Testament would we even be aware?
 
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