God's Word: Unchanging?

[FuzzyBunny116]

In the OT, God commands

Deuteronomy 13:1
“Every command that I enjoin on you, you shall be careful to observe, neither adding to it nor subtracting from it.”

Leviticus 22:10
“If a man commits adultery with his neighbor’s wife, both the adulterer and the adulteress shall be put to death.”

Why does Jesus then allow the woman who is to be stoned to live?

 

[otm]

You are looking at too narrow a definition of “God’s Word”.

We are told that God is Love. If god is Love, then it would seem that part of that Love is the forgiveness of sins and sinners.

And if forgiveness of sinners is part of God’s Love, then it is alos part of God’s Word.

Therefore your reading of a single line of God’s Word is to take it out of the context of the totality of God’s Word. It is not contradictory, because God cannot contradict Himself. It is part of the totality of God’s Word, just as Justice is part of the totality of God’s Word.

 

[Liberian]

FuzzyBunny116:

Why does Jesus then allow the woman who is to be stoned to live?

Fuzzy Bunny,

There is usually more to these things than meets the eye. Quite apart from Jesus’ message that he came not to condemn but to redeem and forgive (and Moses was trying to run a country and had to enforce laws), there is an excellent chance that the woman in John 8 was set up. Think about it for a minute:

• The woman was brought before Jesus but the man was let go.
• There was a crowd ready-made for the occasion.
• Liberian

 

[NotWorthy]

FuzzyBunny116:

In the OT, God commands

Leviticus 22:10
“If a man commits adultery with his neighbor’s wife, both the adulterer and the adulteress shall be put to death.”

Could they be dead spiritually? The woman caught in adultery would almost certainly be dead spiritually, but Jesus, who gives eternal life, forgave her.

He didn’t come to abolish the law, but to fulfill it.

I don’t know, I’m just speculating.

Notworthy

 

[NotWorthy]

Another thing, Leviticus documents the Deuteronomic Covenant, which Jesus fulfilled. In fulfilling it, we are no longer under the constraints of that Law. Being that I love pork, that’s a good thing!

Notworthy

 

[Pug]

FuzzyBunny116:

Why does Jesus then allow the woman who is to be stoned to live?

Perhaps Jesus did a much better job of purging the evil from the midst of Israel than stoning the woman ever would. Hence he has fulfilled the law.

Deuteronomy 17:7 "The hand of the witnesses shall be first against him to put him to death, and afterward the hand of all the people. So you shall purge the evil from your midst.

Anyhow, perhaps they were uncertain in the case and “properly” under the law brought it to a teacher to decide the case. And they *truly *properly did what he told them. Just throwing it out there.

Also, there remained no witnesses to the adultery. Can’t kill her with no witnesses. You need at least 2 or 3 of them. At the end, only the woman (who does not count as a witness) and God were there. Yeah, I know, but I don’t think the list of 2 or 3 was supposed to be counting HIM.

 

[trogiah]

Jesus advocated following the Law of Moses. He told them to carry out the law by stoning her… beginning with the one who never failed to keep the law of Moses. The ones who refused to carry out the stoning were the ones who broke the Law of Moses.

Jesus was under no obligation to stone her. He was not a witness to her crime. He did not violate the Law of Moses.

All that is true, but the other point is, the Old Covenant of which the law you quoted is a part, was broken, (by men) and replaced by the New Covenant. So we do not have to throw stones at others even if we do witness there crimes

peace

Jim

 

[Daniel_Marsh]

Jesus knew it was a set up by the fact that they failed to bring the man too. Jesus mission was not to comdem, but to bring salvation to all.

Also, on a sidenote, the best, oldest manuscripts do not have John 8 story in them, so this is a disputed text concerning if it is even part of the orginal gospel of John.