W
wdclawson
Guest
Reading Luke in the NJB, 11:13 has Jesus saying that the Heavenly Father will give the “Holy Spirit” to those who ask him. The footnote for 11:13 points out that the parallel verse Mt 7:11 says the Father will give “good things”.
I realize this is just one of many examples of the differences between the Evangelists, but it struck me that this was a rather stark difference in a very short and simple text. Indeed, the verse would appear to be a virtual quote from the mouth of Jesus, so it is interesting that it could be so different in the two Gospels…especially since one could certainly get quite different understandings in the concepts of receiving “good things” vs. receiving the “Holy Spirit”.
I’d be interested to know if there are any accepted explanations for this specific difference…or the explanations that the scholars on this board find helpful. Just two legitimate translations from the source(s)? Do any scholars suggest that Jesus gave basically the same teaching twice…but slightly modified…as an explanation for the difference between the Evangelists? Or something else?
And just to add another twist, I note that the Douay-Rheims has the Father giving “the good Spirit” in Luke…“good things” in Matthew.
I guess since they were inspired, the Evangelists had the liberty to write as they did, although I can’t help but feel that it’s a legitimate question to wonder: Well, did Jesus speak the Aramaic equivalent of “good things” or “Holy Spirit” or “good Spirit”?!
Thanks.
I realize this is just one of many examples of the differences between the Evangelists, but it struck me that this was a rather stark difference in a very short and simple text. Indeed, the verse would appear to be a virtual quote from the mouth of Jesus, so it is interesting that it could be so different in the two Gospels…especially since one could certainly get quite different understandings in the concepts of receiving “good things” vs. receiving the “Holy Spirit”.
I’d be interested to know if there are any accepted explanations for this specific difference…or the explanations that the scholars on this board find helpful. Just two legitimate translations from the source(s)? Do any scholars suggest that Jesus gave basically the same teaching twice…but slightly modified…as an explanation for the difference between the Evangelists? Or something else?
And just to add another twist, I note that the Douay-Rheims has the Father giving “the good Spirit” in Luke…“good things” in Matthew.
I guess since they were inspired, the Evangelists had the liberty to write as they did, although I can’t help but feel that it’s a legitimate question to wonder: Well, did Jesus speak the Aramaic equivalent of “good things” or “Holy Spirit” or “good Spirit”?!
Thanks.