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patg
Guest
I will put the date as being before the other gospels, for the following pretty commonly discussed reasons:Let’s start with the Gospel of Mark. What date do you put on the Gospel and why?
1. The “eyewitness” question
This has always been the traditional Christian view. Eusebius, writing in the 4th century, quotes Papias, writing in the 2nd century as saying “Mark, having become Peter’s interpreter, wrote down accurately whatever he remembered of what was said or done by the Lord, however not in order.” So it seems that the evidence that Mark’s Gospel was based on Peter’s witness is a quote centuries later, of a lost work, by someone who gives no arguments or explanation as to why we should assume that he was correct.
Was the author of Mark’s Gospel a companion of Peter and therefore either an Aramaic-speaking Jew from Palestine, or at least someone who had a good knowledge of Aramaic and Judaism?
To determine that, it is necessary to look very closely at how Luke and especially Matthew used Mark’s Gospel. Time and time again, we see Matthew correcting Mark’s blunders about Judaism. Clearly Matthew was a Jew and Mark, despite Papias’ bold assertion, was not very close to the Jerusalem Church.
As a Roman, Mark directed his writings at a Roman audience. He feels it is required to explain Jewish customs, and does not bother to explain Roman culture to his readers. Yet he did not understand Jewish culture, and his gospel once even misquotes the 10 commandments! He commits other errors that no Jew (no long term friend of Peter) could have committed such as having Jews buy things on the Sabbath, of quoting Moses instead of God, and confusing other things. Mark includes many mistakes about Jewish customs, beliefs and practices and shows without a doubt that he was not a Jew. It seems clear that Mark probably didn’t even have any Jewish friends to read over his writings or correct him. Matthew understood Jewish ways and therefore corrected many of Mark’s mistakes.
2. Based on the text, the grammar in Matthew and Luke is better than in Mark, and if Mark had access to either of the other gospels, it would be pretty strange that Mark would change to a lower quality of grammar.
3. Mark is the shortest of the four gospels. Why didn’t Mark include information on Jesus’ birth, the birth of John the Baptist, and not use either Matthew, John or Luke for a source, because he would be unlikely to leave out so much material that was available to him from the other gospels. All of the material presented in Mark is covered in Matthew and/or the Sermon on the Mount.
4. The parenthetical agreement between the gospels always contains the Gospel of Mark as one of the Gospels being compared. This would indicate that Mark was probably available to the other writers and they in turn copied or used the special emphasis that Mark had shown for the topic.
5. Since all of the topics in Mark’s gospel, some seventy-seven topics, are found in at least one other Gospel and the other Gospels cover the same material and topics in essentially the same order as Mark, one concludes that Mark’s Gospel was available to the other writers. The odds against four authors writing independently would arrive at an order without prior consultation or guiding documents is astronomical.
6. Mark’s gospel is absent many of the later mythological developments found, for example, in Matthew and Luke or the mysticism and elements of Greek philosophy found in John. For example, the Infancy Narratives had yet to be invented as teaching tools.
7. Mark’s gospel is also absent theological concerns that would become of importance in later versions of the gospel (Mark often made statements that would later prove to be downright humiliating for the church, as their theology evolved and left the simplicity of Mark far behind). For example, Christ is simply baptized by John the Baptist in Mark’s gospel, and no more is said.