Grace for everyone except Mary?

[Canto]

Did I get your attention?

OK, when I read Protestant and even some Catholic Bibles! Mary is favoured and has found favour with God (LK 1:28,30)

The Greek word is kecharitomene
It seems to me, though I’m no expert that CHARITO should translate as grace and not favour.

Ephesians 1:6 features echaritosen
and charito is translated in P and C Bibles as grace

Luke 1:30 charin usually rendered as favour BUT in
John 1:6 charin is rendered as grace

1 Corinthians 1:3 charis is rendered as Grace
Jude 1:4 charita is rendered as Grace
Acts 15:11 charitos is rendered as Grace

Wether you believe Mary is full of grace or not, shouldn’t a translation at least say grace and not favour for Lk 1:28 but also 1:30 or am I missing something???

Would appreciate your thoughts

 

[Nickkname]

It should be “grace”. It’s why we say full of grace in the Hail Mary.

 

[thistle]

Did I get your attention?

OK, when I read Protestant and even some Catholic Bibles! Mary is favoured and has found favour with God (LK 1:28,30)

The Greek word is kecharitomene
It seems to me, though I’m no expert that CHARITO should translate as grace and not favour.

Ephesians 1:6 features echaritosen
and charito is translated in P and C Bibles as grace

Luke 1:30 charin usually rendered as favour BUT in
John 1:6 charin is rendered as grace

1 Corinthians 1:3 charis is rendered as Grace
Jude 1:4 charita is rendered as Grace
Acts 15:11 charitos is rendered as Grace

Wether you believe Mary is full of grace or not, shouldn’t a translation at least say grace and not favour for Lk 1:28 but also 1:30 or am I missing something???

Would appreciate your thoughts

I’m looking at my D-R Bible (Catholic Bible) and Luke 1:30 says “And the Angel said to her: Fear not, Mary, for thou hast found grace with God”.

 

[NotWorthy]

When speaking of God’s love, isn’t grace the means of God showing us favor? The problem is, one must understand this before one can appreciate the term “full of grace”.

 

[Gara3987]

I’m looking at my D-R Bible (Catholic Bible) and Luke 1:30 says “And the Angel said to her: Fear not, Mary, for thou hast found grace with God”.

Here is another verse:

And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. Luke 1, 28 DRB]

Et ingressus angelus ad eam dixit: Ave gratia plena: Dominus tecum: benedicta tu in mulieribus. [Lucam I:28., Latin Vulgate]

"Consider the word “grace”—in Greek, charis. As one conservative Catholic professor of Hebrew, Greek and Latin told this author, by the time St. Paul wrote, the Greek word charis already had its specifically Christian theological meaning of “grace.” And St. Jerome corresponded to St. Paul’s meaning by translating charis into Latin as gratia, which in English becomes “grace.”

It does not take any particular mental acumen to distinguish the difference between being “full of grace” and “highly favored.” “Favor” or “favored” is one of the meanings for charis, but not the one intended by St. Luke in Scripture. A person may be highly favored with any number of talents and abilities, or with good looks or plenty of money, and so forth. But does that mean he or she is therefore “full of grace”? We understand Our Lady to be “full of grace” in the sense of being absolutely full of God’s divine life (Sanctifying Grace), so that there is no sin in her soul whatsoever. What a difference in meanings!

Concerning the method of translating employed by the translators of the modern Catholic Bibles, this writer believes it can be demonstrated clearly where they are mistaken; and this point alone brings into question the value of their entire work.

The ancient translators of the Sacred Scripture, by and large, did literal, wordfor-word translations of the Bible. It was their policy to be faithful to every word—and to every shade of meaning of every word—used in the Bible. This included the 72 Hebrew scholars who translated the Old Testament into Greek at Alexandria, Egypt, about 284 B.C.; the translator(s) of the Old Itala (Vetus Itala) Latin Bible of about 150 A.D.; and of course, St. Jerome, who did the Latin Vulgate Bible and who finished his work about 405 A.D. The same is true of the original Douay-Rheims commission (1582-1610), of Bishop Richard Challoner (1748-1751), and of Mgr. Kenrick (1859).

However, the translators of the modern Catholic bibles—in the judgment of this writer, after reading their translations and comparing them to the Douay-Rheims, the Vulgate and the Greek of the New Testament—are proceeding according to the following method:

They read a text in the current transcriptions of the original languages, decide what THEY THINK it means, and then translate THEIR interpretation into English! The result is that the English is sometimes (not always!) easier to understand, but it is not necessarily what the Bible says; rather, it is THEIR INTERPRETATION AND THEIR UNDERSTANDING OF WHAT THE BIBLE Interpreting Rather than Translating 21 SAYS! And often the difference from the Vulgate and DRB, the traditional Catholic versions, is glaring."

This information Came from What bible should you read?

pg 18-22.

 

[Canto]

Thanks for the replys!

I wonder why there is the inconsistancy in some translations. Why you would translate favour and then later on for the same word translate grace?

I do love my douay rheims, though not perfect, it beats all the current transaltions, though I have a soft spot for the Jerusalem Bible.