C
colliric
Guest
I 'd like to ask your position on Matthew 16:18… no not the “rock” thing again… Let’s talk about the second part
“And the gates of Hadou(Greek word) shall not prevail against you”
Hadou is often translated by modern Bibles as either “Hades”, “Death” or “The underworld”(with rare exceptions sporting the traditional word “Hell”).
I personally believe this is a mistranslation which doesn’t take into account the actual word used. Hadou literally translated is actually “house of Hades”, not simply “Hades”, or “death” or “the underworld”. Although it certainly took that nickname of just being “Hades” even in the greek, If you look at it fully, it did not mean that and I don’t think in this passage the second meaning of the word is being used in translations in the right place and context. It simply to me doesn’t logically fit in there as the place Jesus was talking about. Once again he was not talking in greek, but in Aramaic. I think this is another case in the same verse where the Greek isn’t fully able to render to us modern historians what Jesus actually said(with the exception of catholic who know full well what the place Jesus is talking about here is).
The word itself in Greek meant originally “house of hades” I can’t get past that phrase.
To me, what Jesus possibly said was actually this “and the gates of the house of the ruler of the underworld(Or perhaps he simply said “the house of Satan” or “house of The Devil” and yet the greek equilivent word is still clearly Hadou, you could even replace “house” with “domain” or “place”), shall not prevail against you”. To me, the Greek word truncated the whole aramaic passage into one singular word which ancient Greek Christians would understand is not referring to Hades but it is using the wider original meaning of the word(“House of the ruler of the underworld”) in order to talk about the Christian place of damnation.
This certainly supports the Catholic position on the verse.
Just look at how the 4th century Vulgate and the majority of other bibles up to and including the KJV some 1200 years later, render it… Hell(in latin of cause “Inferi”).
I think Jesus when he was talking about “gates” was referring to the gates of hell, which is Satan’s domain or home, I think this is the correct interpretation and therefore “and the gates of hell” is the Correct translation. Jesus to me literally said “and the gates of the house of Satan(who of cause is christianity’s ruler of the underworld) will not rise against you” He was not talking about death(Hadou is a place), certainly wasn’t talking about Hades which is the greek afterlife specifically… no, to me he was talking about Rocks, Gates, keys and an enclosure which contains his nemesis.
“And the gates of Hadou(Greek word) shall not prevail against you”
Hadou is often translated by modern Bibles as either “Hades”, “Death” or “The underworld”(with rare exceptions sporting the traditional word “Hell”).
I personally believe this is a mistranslation which doesn’t take into account the actual word used. Hadou literally translated is actually “house of Hades”, not simply “Hades”, or “death” or “the underworld”. Although it certainly took that nickname of just being “Hades” even in the greek, If you look at it fully, it did not mean that and I don’t think in this passage the second meaning of the word is being used in translations in the right place and context. It simply to me doesn’t logically fit in there as the place Jesus was talking about. Once again he was not talking in greek, but in Aramaic. I think this is another case in the same verse where the Greek isn’t fully able to render to us modern historians what Jesus actually said(with the exception of catholic who know full well what the place Jesus is talking about here is).
The word itself in Greek meant originally “house of hades” I can’t get past that phrase.
To me, what Jesus possibly said was actually this “and the gates of the house of the ruler of the underworld(Or perhaps he simply said “the house of Satan” or “house of The Devil” and yet the greek equilivent word is still clearly Hadou, you could even replace “house” with “domain” or “place”), shall not prevail against you”. To me, the Greek word truncated the whole aramaic passage into one singular word which ancient Greek Christians would understand is not referring to Hades but it is using the wider original meaning of the word(“House of the ruler of the underworld”) in order to talk about the Christian place of damnation.
This certainly supports the Catholic position on the verse.
Just look at how the 4th century Vulgate and the majority of other bibles up to and including the KJV some 1200 years later, render it… Hell(in latin of cause “Inferi”).
I think Jesus when he was talking about “gates” was referring to the gates of hell, which is Satan’s domain or home, I think this is the correct interpretation and therefore “and the gates of hell” is the Correct translation. Jesus to me literally said “and the gates of the house of Satan(who of cause is christianity’s ruler of the underworld) will not rise against you” He was not talking about death(Hadou is a place), certainly wasn’t talking about Hades which is the greek afterlife specifically… no, to me he was talking about Rocks, Gates, keys and an enclosure which contains his nemesis.