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Zeldarocks
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I’ve been doing some research into Gabriel’s greeting to Mary as “Hail”, so far, I’ve found that the underlying Greek is but a greeting, not necessarily denotive of royalty. What say you?
I know of no one who has tried to teach me that it was. Where did you see anything like that and is it from an authentic and authoritative Catholic source?I’ve been doing some research into Gabriel’s greeting to Mary as “Hail”, so far, I’ve found that the underlying Greek is but a greeting, not necessarily denotive of royalty. What say you?
Yep, chaire or chairete (the imperative form of chairo, ‘rejoice’) in secular Greek is very much a common greeting when meeting and leaving a person as well as the standard greeting for letters. But it could also be of course a greeting with more formal overtones: the soldiers mock Jesus with the words “chaire, Basileu tōn Ioudaiōn”. In that case, I don’t think it would be proper enough to translate that as “Hello, King of the Judeans” since the mockery is apparently based on the standard salutation for the Roman emperor, “Ave, Caesar” (‘Hail, Caesar’; ave is actually very much the same as the Greek chaire in usage, mind you):I’ve been doing some research into Gabriel’s greeting to Mary as “Hail”, so far, I’ve found that the underlying Greek is but a greeting, not necessarily denotive of royalty. What say you?
Jesus is to be given all honor and worship He is due because He is God, yes. No one’s suggesting here that we should give adoration to Mary like we adore God.I’ve also heard it said that the term ‘blessed’ in respect to Mary, was used in a different context than it would be used in respect to Jesus; e.i. Mary is Fortunate, Jesus is to be Adored.
Mary is human and so the word “blessed” can only be used of her in the sense that she was a recipient of God’s blessings, or “Fortunate.” She is, of course, never to be adored.I’ve also heard it said that the term ‘blessed’ in respect to Mary, was used in a different context than it would be used in respect to Jesus; e.i. Mary is Fortunate, Jesus is to be Adored.
I agree with u.Yep, chaire or chairete (the imperative form of chairo, ‘rejoice’) in secular Greek is very much a common greeting when meeting and leaving a person as well as the standard greeting for letters. But it could also be of course a greeting with more formal overtones: the soldiers mock Jesus with the words “chaire, Basileu tōn Ioudaiōn”. In that case, I don’t think it would be proper enough to translate that as “Hello, King of the Judeans” since the mockery is apparently based on the standard salutation for the Roman emperor, “Ave, Caesar” (‘Hail, Caesar’; ave is actually very much the same as the Greek chaire in usage, mind you):
And the soldiers, having woven a crown of thorns, placed it on His head, and a purple garment they put on Him, and said, “Hail, the king of the Judeans!” And they were giving Him slaps on the face.
But even if Gabriel was using chaire in the normal sense here, the key word in the greeting is kecharitōmenē, as Church Militant has already said.
I think the unique part is that the angel does not address Mary by name but rather by a quality that she possesses, that being full of grace. In Luke chapter 1 the angel addressed Zechariah by name. By not addressing Mary by name it is almost as if the angel is acknowledging that there is something more important about Mary than her name. Then also important is that in verse 38 Mary calls herself the “handmaid of the Lord” The Greek word there is “doule” and it means a female slave or bondmaid. The idea is that Mary is the property of or belongs to the the Lord. Then in verse 43 when Mary visits Elizabeth, she is greeted with Elizabeth saying, “And why is this granted me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?” Which echoes what King David said about the Arc of the Covenant in 2Samuel 6:9: “…How shall the ark of the LORD come to me?”Hail may be a common, pleasant greeting among humans but, as far as I can tell, it’s use by an angel to greet a human seems unique to Mary.
There is a problem with this alleged parallel. Why did you leave out the first part of the verse? Why not show the context in which this statement is made? If you read the verses prior to verse 9, you will see that David was bringing the Ark up to Jerusalem, that it was being carried on a cart, and that Uzzah had reached out and touched the Ark when the oxen pulling the cart stummbled. God killed Uzzah for touching the Ark, which made David angry. Then verse 9 reads, ‘And David was afraid of the Lord that day; and he said, “How can the ark of the Lord come to me?”’ (RSV). Was Elizabeth afraid that Mary had come to see her? Did God kill someone for touching Mary before Elizabeth made her statement? If not, then how does the parallel work?I think the unique part is that the angel does not address Mary by name but rather by a quality that she possesses, that being full of grace. In Luke chapter 1 the angel addressed Zechariah by name. By not addressing Mary by name it is almost as if the angel is acknowledging that there is something more important about Mary than her name. Then also important is that in verse 38 Mary calls herself the “handmaid of the Lord” The Greek word there is “doule” and it means a female slave or bondmaid. The idea is that Mary is the property of or belongs to the the Lord. Then in verse 43 when Mary visits Elizabeth, she is greeted with Elizabeth saying, “And why is this granted me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?” Which echoes what King David said about the Arc of the Covenant in 2Samuel 6:9: “…How shall the ark of the LORD come to me?”
Ah, but there is a parallel, even in the relating of the unfortunate Uzzah.There is a problem with this alleged parallel. Why did you leave out the first part of the verse? Why not show the context in which this statement is made? If you read the verses prior to verse 9, you will see that David was bringing the Ark up to Jerusalem, that it was being carried on a cart, and that Uzzah had reached out and touched the Ark when the oxen pulling the cart stummbled. God killed Uzzah for touching the Ark, which made David angry. Then verse 9 reads, ‘And David was afraid of the Lord that day; and he said, “How can the ark of the Lord come to me?”’ (RSV). Was Elizabeth afraid that Mary had come to see her? Did God kill someone for touching Mary before Elizabeth made her statement? If not, then how does the parallel work?
OK, so what relates to Uzzah in your parallel? You seem to have missed this explanation.Ah, but there is a parallel, even in the relating of the unfortunate Uzzah.
Yeah I can well imagine that Mary would be troubled by the angel’s greeting. I would imagine you would be too if an angel called you full of grace especially 30+ years before the age of grace began. But then maybe you can explain to me how that could be. And let’s not confuse the issue, the root word in kecharitōmenē is charito and it means more than just merely “highly favored”. It means grace. The church has bound this doctrine with the binding and loosening authority it possesses in maters of faith and morals. And so it is.I have a few problems with this dogma. Specifically, the greek word kecharitōmenē has nothing to do with sinlessness. It was a greeting, and we see Mary “… was greatly troubled at the saying, and considered in her mind what sort of greeting this might be.” (Luke 1:29 RSV emphasis mine). There were some ECF’s (specifically, Origen, Basil, John Chrysostom and Cyril of Alexandria) that taught that Mary suffered from venial faults (see Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma by Dr. Ludwig Ott, page 203). Dr. Ott also states (on page 200) “The doctrine of the Immaculate Cenception of Mary is not explicitly revealed in Scripture.”, and on page 202, under section 4 (Argument from Reason), he writes, “Reason bases the dogma on the Scholastic axiom, which is already found in the writngs of Eadmer; Potuit, decuit, ergo fecit (God could do it, He ought to do it, therefore He did it). This, it is true, gives no certainty, but still, it rationally establishes for the dogma a high degree of probability.” (BTW - Eadmer lived around the beginning of the 12th century.)
Wow I don’t know where you get your information but the “argument” for Mary’s Immaculate Conception was present in the early church long before your 1,000 years. I present these facts to show that the ECF’s writings on Mary’s purity abound:I would say that these arguments (especially the last one) disregards the Scriptures that make it clear that “… my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways, says the Lord. For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways and my thoughts than your thoughts.” (Isa 55:8-9 RSV). There is no question that God could have done it, but that he ought to have done it is an argument based on a strictly human perspective, which makes the conclusion (therefore He did it) highly suspect (especially since this argument wasn’t brought forth until well over 1,000 years after Mary had left this life). Furthermore, I seriously question a dogma that is based on “a high degree of probability”. If you demand that someone believe it, you should be able to provide solid evidence for the belief.
You seem to miss the point of typology. All types in the OT are perfected in the NT. Jesus was the 2nd Adam. Did Jesus fail in the Garden? Jesus was the New Moses. Did Jesus fail in following Yahweh’s commands.OK, so what relates to Uzzah in your parallel? You seem to have missed this explanation.
How many people did God kill for touching Mary, and why don’t we have it recorded in Scripture? If nobody was killed for touching her, what is the connection with the Ark that Uzzah was killed for touching?
Of course they did. But how many of those “other things” had 5 or 6 other parallels that coincided. You can choose to keep your blinders on, but these parallels have been recognized for ages.Now, for your other points -
a) A lot of things happened in the hill country of Judea. Should they be part of this parallel as well?
Jesus wasn’t the “Ark of the Covenant”. He was the Covenant.I think I can answer b-f with a single point - Who was Mary carrying? What if Jesus was the “Ark”? Your points would still be valid, but only in regard to Jesus, not Mary. I have a couple of problems with viewing Mary as the “New Ark of the Covenant” (besides the fact that such a parallel is not clearly found in Scripture).
But neither did the Ark do this permanently. The Ark has been “taken away”. Hmmmmm…
- The Kohathites would be a better parallel to Mary (they were responsible for carrying the Ark, which is what Mary did with Jesus).
- The Ark contains the manna, the tablets and Aaron’s rod, Mary was pregnant for only 9 months. To be sure, she cared for Jesus, but she did not “carry” him her whole life (not the way the Ark carried the manna, the tablets and the rod).
Sorry, but my parallel arguments have been accepted by the Church for a long time, my brother!Sorry, but your parallel arguments aren’t as persuasive as you thought!
BTW - I also reject the dogma of her perpetual virginity, but that is a bit off topic, so I won’t go into detail here.
The OT Arc of the Covenant held the the manna [bread from heaven], the tablets [word of God] and Aaron’s rod [symbol of the levitical priesthood], Mary the NT Arc of the Covenant held Jesus, the bread from Heaven, [John 6] the Word [John 1] and the eternal high priest. The OT was not just an ordinary box. It was lined with gold, the most precious metal, both within and without. Mary too is not just an ordinary woman but one most precious to God that she would bear His only begotten Son. Once again the OT is a prefigurement of the NT and what is prefigured in the OT is perfected in the NT.… The Ark contains the manna, the tablets and Aaron’s rod, Mary was pregnant for only 9 months. To be sure, she cared for Jesus, but she did not “carry” him her whole life (not the way the Ark carried the manna, the tablets and the rod).
Sorry, but your parallel arguments aren’t as persuasive as you thought!
BTW - I also reject the dogma of her perpetual virginity, but that is a bit off topic, so I won’t go into detail here.
Well the German “Hail Mary” would translate into "be greeted (or greetings) Mary, full of grace / mercy.I’ve been doing some research into Gabriel’s greeting to Mary as “Hail”, so far, I’ve found that the underlying Greek is but a greeting, not necessarily denotive of royalty. What say you?