Help on meaning of "Son of Man"

[CeciliaS]

Dear all,

Can someone please explain to me why Jesus refers to Himself as the Son of Man?

Ever get the feeling that you are dealing with something that is probably obvious and basic and simple, but that, for some reason, you can’t wrap your mind around it? That is how I am feeling about this matter!

Jesus being born of the Virgin Mary is, of course, a good reason for Him to call Himself the Son of Man. But why the emphasis, so many times, in the Gospels? Is it a reference to passages in the Old Testament?

Thanks!

CeciliaS

 

[Crumpy]

The title is very significant in prophecy. My electronic copy of the Catholic New American Bible pulls up 41 occurrences in Ezekiel, Daniel, and Revelation.

It is obviously a reference to Jesus as One foretold in OT prophecy and predicted in NT apocalyptic (end time) revelation.

I thought it was one of Jesus’ favorite titles for himself in one of the gospels but that didn’t come up in my search results.

 

[Todd_Easton]

The following is from The Catholic Biblical Association’s book, A Commentary on the New Testament, published in 1942, page 68, concerning Matthew 8:20:
20. This is the first time in this Gospel that the expression Son of Man is used. Our Lord used it often in speaking of Himself. One reason for this was probably the Semitic custom of polite speech which discouraged the too frequent use of the first person singular “I”]. But the reason why Jesus chose this specific title for Himself was because it was definitely Messianic yet at the same time not clearly understood by the people as a synonym for Messias [Messiah]. An examination of the numerous places where it is used (not only in the Synoptic Gospels [Matthew, Mark, and Luke] but also in John) shows that Jesus used it of Himself in His office of Messias but with special emphasis on His human nature. No doubt it is ultimately based on Dan. *7,*13-14 [Daniel 7:13-14], for even the enemies of Jesus understood this passage as Messianic (cf. Matt. 26, 64 ff; Mark 14, 62 ff). But that it was ordinarily not understood as such by the people seems clear from John 12, 34. Therefore by calling Himself the Son of Man Jesus both proclaimed Himself the Messias and at the same time concealed this truth from the people because He did not wish to be taken for such a Messias as the people were expecting. (See Commentary on [Matthew] 8, 4). Since this humble title seemed to stress the humanity of Jesus a the expense of His divinity, with the exception of Acts 7, 56, where there is reference to the prophecy of Dan. 7, 13, it is never used in the New Testament by any one but Jesus Himself.
The above mentioned Commentary on Matthew 8:4, page 64-65, says in part:
4. See thou tell no one: most of the miracles of Jesus were not done primarily to prove to His immediate audience that He was the Messias and the Son of God but rather out of sympathy for the afflicted. On the other hand, during most of His ministry, at least in Galilee, He endeavored to conceal His miracles. For He did not wish to be proclaimed the Messias as long as the people had a false idea of the Messias as a mighty temporal prince (cf. John 6, 14 f). For similar instances of our Lord’s efforts to conceal His true nature until the proper time cf. Matt. 9, 30; 12, 16; Mark 1, 34; 3, 12; 5, 43; 7, 36; Luke 4, 41. …

 

[Joe_5859]

The title really points to Christ’s role as the anointed Messiah. See the old Catholic Encyclopedia for more info:

Son of Man

 

[Benadam]

here is :twocents: worth of speculation you may find interesting.

And God created man to his own image: to the image of God he created him: male and female he created them.

I Think Jesus refered to Himself as Son of Man in respect of His mother primarily but in a special way his foster father too.
Mary, and Mary with Joseph are Man.

I will put enmities between thee (the serpent) and the woman, and thy seed and her* seed*:

Adam also knew his wife again: and she brought forth a son, and called his name Seth, saying: God hath given me another seed, for Abel whom Cain slew.

Seth is regarded as son of Man.

1 This is the book of the generation of Adam.

Seth is acknowledged. It’s important to note that the words spoken at the creation of man are repeated when Seth is born.

In the day that God created man, he made him to the likeness of God. 2 He created them male and female; and blessed them: and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created. 3 And Adam lived a hundred and thirty years, and begot a son to his own image and likeness, and called his name Seth.

The named sons in Adam’s line Seth, Enos, Cainan etc, are to their fathers what Seth is to Adam. Sons in the image and likeness of their fathers. Sons of Man. Establishing among men the holy place.
A son of man re-establishes the image of God in that he is a son in the image and likeness of Adam through Seth

*The royal line is not subject to public view after Noah untill re-emerging in the life of Abraham under the watchfull eye of the Priest Melchizidek. Expressed through a trinity of fathers; Abraham, Issaiac, and Jacob , to submerg among their families untill a son of Levi is called out to prepare the Hebrew tribes to be a nation. *

God calls the line of Adam’s sons into public view in King David. What seems like a deliberate attempt to contrast God’s chosen with the poplar choice of the people.

The line remained hidden among the Jews even during the events surrounding the ultimate end of the sons of man foretold in the beginning…

In the day that God created man, he made him to the likeness of God. 2 He created them male and female;
I will put enmities between thee (the serpent) and the woman, and thy seed and her seed**:

• Now and since, as history unfolds, those last events are spotlighted and in constant view.*

 

[CeciliaS]

Thank you, all, for such complete answers! I am going to study it all in detail, right now.

CeciliaS

 

[diggerdomer]

Dear all,

Can someone please explain to me why Jesus refers to Himself as the Son of Man?

Ever get the feeling that you are dealing with something that is probably obvious and basic and simple, but that, for some reason, you can’t wrap your mind around it? That is how I am feeling about this matter!

Jesus being born of the Virgin Mary is, of course, a good reason for Him to call Himself the Son of Man. But why the emphasis, so many times, in the Gospels? Is it a reference to passages in the Old Testament?

Thanks!

CeciliaS

Great question. Ambiguous answer.

In the Old Testament, Ezekiel (e.g.) is often referred to as “son of man” which clearly, simply means “human.”

In Daniel 7 ff. though, there is a heavenly (perhaps messianic?) figure who is called “son of man” and is clearly not simply human.

Which begs the question, in Jesus’ time, when he used the phrase, which understanding would Jews have associated with it?

 

[Roman_Army]

I think it would have to do with the fact that Jesus is the New Adam. As the New Adam he would logically be the Son of Adam (i.e. Adam’s name in Hebrew translates to “Man”) and therefore his direct heir or successor. He would be his replacement or representative before God to undo the Original Sin by his obedience and sacrifice on the cross. This further makes sense if you realize that Jesus’ human nature was exactly like that of Adam’s prior to the Original Sin which corrupted human nature.