B
BusterMartin
Guest
Hello! I have some questions regarding specific areas of the Catholic faith as it compares to the Eastern Orthodox faith. I am a practicing Catholic, but over many years I have been learning more about Orthodoxy and have come to a point where I need help researching. I have yet to find any good, clear arguments that are pro-Catholic on these points. Can someone provide them please? If so, can you point me to any references to back up your views please? Thank you to all for any help you can provide!
My main concern is focused around Papal Supremacy. First, the Catholic Church views the Pope’s power as “supreme, full, immediate, and universal ordinary power in the Church, which he is always able to exercise freely" (Canon 331). And it also states that, “no appeal or recourse is permitted against a sentence or decree of the Roman Pontiff” (Canon 333 section 3). That, to my understanding and put very simply, means the Pope is technically free to do what he wants, when he wants, and no one can overrule him. Is this the way it was in the early Church (basically, I’m looking for the time from Pentecost until the Great Schism circa 1054 AD)? I know plenty of arguments to say that it wasn’t how the early Church viewed the Bishop of Rome, but good, solid arguments saying that was how the Church viewed the Bishop of Rome (pro-Catholic view here) is what I’m hoping to see here.
Thoughts? Thanks for all and any help!!
My main concern is focused around Papal Supremacy. First, the Catholic Church views the Pope’s power as “supreme, full, immediate, and universal ordinary power in the Church, which he is always able to exercise freely" (Canon 331). And it also states that, “no appeal or recourse is permitted against a sentence or decree of the Roman Pontiff” (Canon 333 section 3). That, to my understanding and put very simply, means the Pope is technically free to do what he wants, when he wants, and no one can overrule him. Is this the way it was in the early Church (basically, I’m looking for the time from Pentecost until the Great Schism circa 1054 AD)? I know plenty of arguments to say that it wasn’t how the early Church viewed the Bishop of Rome, but good, solid arguments saying that was how the Church viewed the Bishop of Rome (pro-Catholic view here) is what I’m hoping to see here.
Thoughts? Thanks for all and any help!!