T
The_Barrister
Guest
I subscribe to the preterist view of the Apocalypse - that what was revealed in John’s vision was substantially fulfilled in the first century. Among many other reported signs of fulfillment, we know from Tacitus and/or Josephus that some soldiers reported seeing several unusual signs, including a chariot coming in the clouds, when Jerusalem fell to the Romans in 70 A.D. We also know that Jerusalem was destroyed by fire, and Rome was not destroyed by fire, strongly supporting the conclusion that the “harlot” city is Jerusalem, not Rome.
The destruction of Jerusalem, together with the historical account of a chariot coming in the clouds over the city at the moment of Jerusalem’s fall, appear to closely coincide with Jesus’ Olivet Discourse as reported in Matthew, Mark and Luke, as well as John’s Apocalypse.
Note: I also believe - consistent with Catholic dogma - that Jesus **will ** come again, and there will be a final judgment.
Is there a way to interpret the sign of the chariot “coming in the clouds” at the moment of Jerusalem’s fall, as reported by the historians, as being consistent with the Catholic view that the *parousia * is yet to come?
The destruction of Jerusalem, together with the historical account of a chariot coming in the clouds over the city at the moment of Jerusalem’s fall, appear to closely coincide with Jesus’ Olivet Discourse as reported in Matthew, Mark and Luke, as well as John’s Apocalypse.
Note: I also believe - consistent with Catholic dogma - that Jesus **will ** come again, and there will be a final judgment.
Is there a way to interpret the sign of the chariot “coming in the clouds” at the moment of Jerusalem’s fall, as reported by the historians, as being consistent with the Catholic view that the *parousia * is yet to come?